Latest Cisco 300-725 SWSA exam resources are shared with you

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Try the Cisco 300-725 SWSA online test

QUESTION 1 #

Which statement about Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting integration is true?

A. AWSR uses IP addresses to differentiate Cisco WSA deployments
B. AWSR does not require a license to index data
C. AWSR can remove log files after they are indexed
D. AWSR installation is CLI-based on Windows and Red Hat Linux systems

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/Advanced_Reporting/WSA_Advanced_Reporting_
7/Advanced_Web_Security_Reporting_7_0.pdf

QUESTION 2 #

Which port is configured in a browser to use the Cisco WSA web proxy with default settings?

A. 8080
B. 8443
C. 8021
D. 3128

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Aug2013/CVDWebSecurityUsingCiscoWSADesignGuide-AUG13.pdf (16)

QUESTION 3 #

Which type of FTP proxy does the Cisco WSA support?

A. non-native FTP
B. FTP over UDP tunneling
C. FTP over HTTP
D. hybrid FTP

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117984-qanda-wsa-00.html

QUESTION 4 #

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the transaction log is true?

A. The log does not have a date and time
B. The proxy had the content and did not contact other servers
C. The transaction used TCP destination port 8187
D. The AnalizeSuspectTraffic policy group was applied to the transaction

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5 #

Which two log types does the Cisco WSA provide to troubleshoot Cisco data security and external data loss prevention
policies? (Choose two.)

A. upload data
B. data security
C. default proxy
D. data access
E. external data

Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_User
Guide_chapter_010011.html

QUESTION 6 #

Which command is used to flush a single user from authentication memory?

A. data
B. auth cache
C. diagnostic
D. clear

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/118259-technote-wsa-00.html

QUESTION 7 #

Which two parameters are mandatory to control access to websites with proxy authentication on a Cisco WSA?
(Choose two.)

A. External Authentication
B. Identity Enabled Authentication
C. Transparent User Identification
D. Credential Encryption
E. Authentication Realm

Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_
UserGuide_11_7_appendix_010111.html

QUESTION 8 #

Which two features on the Cisco WSA help prevent outbound data loss for HTTP or FTP traffic? (Choose two.)

A. web reputation filters
B. Advanced Malware Protection
C. third-party DLP integration
D. data security filters
E. SOCKS proxy

Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-5/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_5_1/b_WS
A_UserGuide_11_5_1_chapter_010000.pdf

QUESTION 9 #

Which action is a valid default for the Global Access Policy in the Application Visibility Control engine on the Cisco
WSA?

A. bandwidth limit
B. permit
C. restrict
D. monitor

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://hrouhani.org/cisco-web-security-appliance-ironport/

QUESTION 10 #

Which two types of reports are scheduled on the Cisco WSA to analyze traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Layer 3 traffic monitor
B. URL categories
C. host statistics
D. application visibility
E. system capacity

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_User
Guide_chapter_010101.pdf
(8)

QUESTION 11 #

When an access policy is created, what is the default option for the Application Settings?

A. Use Global Policy Applications Settings
B. Define the Applications Custom Setting
C. Set all applications to Block
D. Set all applications to Monitor

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_
UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01111.html

QUESTION 12 #

Which two features can be used with an upstream and downstream Cisco WSA web proxy to have the upstream WSA
identify users by their client IP address? (Choose two.)

A. X-Forwarded-For
B. high availability
C. web cache
D. via
E. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_User
Guide_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 13 #

Which two configuration options can be configured when invalid certificates are processed with the HTTPS proxy on
WSA enabled? (Choose two.)

A. allow
B. monitor
C. drop
D. block
E. redirect

Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_
UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 14 #

What is required on the Cisco WSA when an AMP file reputation server private cloud is configured?

A. private key from the server to encrypt messages
B. private key to decrypt messages
C. public and private keys from the server
D. public key from the server

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-0/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide/b_WSA_User
Guide_chapter_010001.html

QUESTION 15 #

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco WSA methods from the left onto the correct deployment modes on the right.

You could use an explicit setting (browser config/PAC/WPAD) or transparent (WCCP/PBR) to point to the first proxy and
then the first proxy will route based on the category to one of the two upstream proxies based on your policy configuration.

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/web-security/route-to-wsa-based-on-destination/td-p/2491179

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QUESTION 1

An active project is focused on quality assurance of the deliverable product. In which of the following project phases
would this occur?

A. Execution
B. Monitor and control
C. Planning
D. Closing

QUESTION 2

Project B cannot start before Project A is complete, but Project B has been given the authorization to begin to meet
legislative requirements.
Which of the following is the BEST way to expedite the projects?

A. Project A can reduce the number of deliverables.
B. Project A can be crashed using Project B\’s resources.
C. Project B can have its resources leveled.
D. Project B can begin without Project A completing, therefore accepting future rework.

QUESTION 3

A project is in the initiation phase. Which of the following tasks will take place during this phase?

A. Develop a WBS.
B. Define the project requirements.
C. Create a project charter.
D. Acquire the project resources.

QUESTION 4

Many questions have arisen regarding a newly identified project. Project team members are anxious to know who will be part of the team and what the project will deliver. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide this
information?

A. Kickoff meeting
B. Status report
C. Company-wide email
D. CCB meeting

QUESTION 5

A project manager creates a Pareto chart based on the table below:

comptia pk0-004 exam questions q5

Which of the following describes why the team was asked to inspect and review missing parts, poor adhesives, and
faulty installation?

A. To take preventive action and identify the causes resulting in the highest number of issues
B. To take corrective action and identify the effects resulting in the highest number of issues
C. To take preventive action and identify and frequencies resulting in the highest number of issues
D. To take corrective action and identify the causes resulting in the highest number of issues

QUESTION 6

A critical issue has developed in an active project, and the project manager wants to notify the 20-person global project manager to use FIRST to relay this information?

A. Individually call all project team members.
B. Send an email to all project team members.
C. Schedule a conference call.
D. Schedule a face-to-face meeting.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following documents does a vendor rely on MOST before committing funding and resources to a project?

A. SOW
B. PO
C. SLA
D. MOU

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 299

QUESTION 8

In which of the following circumstances would faxing be the MOST appropriate communication method?

A. When sending confidential information
B. When resolving complex issues
C. When providing weekly status updates
D. When signatures are required

QUESTION 9

Which of the following will identify the MOST potential project risks?

A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Past project documentation
C. Project budget
D. Benchmarking

QUESTION 10

A risk with a minor impact has been realized. There is no change to the triple constraint. The PM should notify the:

A. internal project team.
B. key stakeholders.
C. affected team members.
D. full project team.

QUESTION 11

A project sponsor informs the project manager that the project completion date must be moved one month earlier.
Which of the following should the project manager do NEXT?

A. Recalculate the critical path, determine the new cost, schedule baselines, and initiate the change request process.
B. Recalculate the schedule and cost variance and report the changes to the project stakeholders and sponsor.
C. Calculate the cost of crashing the schedule and obtain the stakeholders\’ approval for the new project WBS and
timeline.
D. Calculate the additional resource requirements that are necessary to meet the new project deadline and work with
human resources to hire additional staff.

QUESTION 12

New requirements were introduced during the execution phase of a project, and the team believes this will impact the
project cost but not the timely completion of project deliverables.
Which of the following is the BEST way for the PM to validate the assessment?

A. Ask the team for estimates and review the project schedule and budget.
B. Ask the team to review the product scope and validate its impact on the schedule and quality.
C. Ask the team for estimates and review the cost management plan.
D. Ask the team to perform a SWOT analysis and validate the assessment.

QUESTION 13

A project manager recently joined a projectized organization and is having many issues on five different projects. Which of the following risk activities should be performed FIRST? (Choose two.)

A. Identify
B. Coordinate
C. Qualify
D. Brainstorm
E. Mitigate
F. Assign

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
BBCAACADBBBDAB

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Latest Cisco 300-710 exam questions

QUESTION 1
Which command must be run to generate troubleshooting files on an FTD?
A. system support view-files
B. sudo sf_troubleshoot.pl
C. system generate-troubleshoot all
D. show tech-support
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-defense-center/117663-technoteSourceFire-00.html


QUESTION 2
What is the disadvantage of setting up a site-to-site VPN in a clustered-units environment?
A. VPN connections can be re-established only if the failed master unit recovers.
B. Smart License is required to maintain VPN connections simultaneously across all cluster units.
C. VPN connections must be re-established when a new master unit is elected.
D. Only established VPN connections are maintained when a new master unit is elected.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/fxos/clustering/ftd-clustersolution.html#concept_g32_yml_y2b


QUESTION 3
Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC?
A. box lever chart
B. arrow chart
C. bar chart
D. benchmark chart
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

QUESTION 4
Which object type supports object overrides?
A. time range
B. security group tag
C. network object
D. DNS server group
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reusable_Objects.html#concept_8BFE8B9A83D742D9B647A74F7AD50053

……

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Cisco 300-710 online practice testing questions and answers for free

QUESTION 1
With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic
that passes through the appliance?
A. inline set
B. passive
C. routed
D. inline tap
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints policy is used only for monitoring endpoint actively?
A. Windows domain controller
B. audit
C. triage
D. protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/amp-endpoints/214933-amp-for-endpoints-deploymentmethodology.html

QUESTION 3
What is a functionality of port objects in Cisco FMC?
A. to mix transport protocols when setting both source and destination port conditions in a rule
B. to represent protocols other than TCP, UDP, and ICMP
C. to represent all protocols in the same way
D. to add any protocol other than TCP or UDP for source port conditions in access control rules.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html
 

QUESTION 4
Which command-line mode is supported from the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?
A. privileged
B. user
C. configuration
D. admin
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev66/command_line_reference.pdf


QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Firepower feature is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time?
A. rate-limiting
B. suspending
C. correlation
D. thresholding
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-Global-Threshold.html


QUESTION 6
What is a result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?
A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing
connections.
B. Integrated Routing and Bridging is supported on the master unit.
C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit
fails.
D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
What is a valid Cisco AMP file disposition?
A. non-malicious
B. malware
C. known-good
D. pristine
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reference_a_wrapper_Chapter_topic_here.html


QUESTION 8
After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload an MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf
 

QUESTION 9
On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?
A. transparent inline mode
B. TAP mode
C. strict TCP enforcement
D. propagate link state
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum bit size that Cisco FMC supports for HTTPS certificates?
A. 1024
B. 8192
C. 4096
D. 2048
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev61/system_configuration.html


QUESTION 11
Which object type supports object overrides?
A. time range
B. security group tag
C. network object
D. DNS server group
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reusable_Objects.html#concept_8BFE8B9A83D742D9B647A74F7AD50053

QUESTION 12
Which action should be taken after editing an object that is used inside an access control policy?
A. Delete the existing object in use.
B. Refresh the Cisco FMC GUI for the access control policy.
C. Redeploy the updated configuration.
D. Create another rule using a different object name.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/630/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev63/reusable_objects.html


QUESTION 13
Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?
A. STP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html

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Certifications: ACDS
Exam Code: 33810X
Exam Name: Avaya Aura Contact Center Solution Design Exam

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Vendor: Splunk
Certifications: Splunk Enterprise Security Certified Admin
Exam Code: SPLK-3001
Exam Name: Splunk Enterprise Security Certified Admin

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Certifications: Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations
Exam Code: PCNSA
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator

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Exam Code: CEH-001
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)

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Certifications: ACSS
Exam Code: 71800X
Exam Name: 71800X – Avaya IX Messaging Implementation and Maintenance

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