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QUESTION 1
With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic
that passes through the appliance?
A. inline set
B. passive
C. routed
D. inline tap
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints policy is used only for monitoring endpoint actively?
A. Windows domain controller
B. audit
C. triage
D. protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/amp-endpoints/214933-amp-for-endpoints-deploymentmethodology.html

QUESTION 3
What is a functionality of port objects in Cisco FMC?
A. to mix transport protocols when setting both source and destination port conditions in a rule
B. to represent protocols other than TCP, UDP, and ICMP
C. to represent all protocols in the same way
D. to add any protocol other than TCP or UDP for source port conditions in access control rules.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html
 

QUESTION 4
Which command-line mode is supported from the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?
A. privileged
B. user
C. configuration
D. admin
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev66/command_line_reference.pdf


QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Firepower feature is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time?
A. rate-limiting
B. suspending
C. correlation
D. thresholding
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-Global-Threshold.html


QUESTION 6
What is a result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?
A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing
connections.
B. Integrated Routing and Bridging is supported on the master unit.
C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit
fails.
D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
What is a valid Cisco AMP file disposition?
A. non-malicious
B. malware
C. known-good
D. pristine
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reference_a_wrapper_Chapter_topic_here.html


QUESTION 8
After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload an MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf
 

QUESTION 9
On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?
A. transparent inline mode
B. TAP mode
C. strict TCP enforcement
D. propagate link state
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum bit size that Cisco FMC supports for HTTPS certificates?
A. 1024
B. 8192
C. 4096
D. 2048
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev61/system_configuration.html


QUESTION 11
Which object type supports object overrides?
A. time range
B. security group tag
C. network object
D. DNS server group
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reusable_Objects.html#concept_8BFE8B9A83D742D9B647A74F7AD50053

QUESTION 12
Which action should be taken after editing an object that is used inside an access control policy?
A. Delete the existing object in use.
B. Refresh the Cisco FMC GUI for the access control policy.
C. Redeploy the updated configuration.
D. Create another rule using a different object name.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/630/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev63/reusable_objects.html


QUESTION 13
Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?
A. STP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html

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QUESTION 1
A company is using an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster with a large primary instance master and two large
Aurora Replicas for high availability and read-only workload scaling. A failover event occurs and application
performance is poor for several minutes. During this time, application servers in all Availability Zones are healthy and
responding normally. What should the company do to eliminate this application performance issue?
A. Configure both of the Aurora Replicas to the same instance class as the primary DB instance. Enable cache
coherence on the DB cluster set the primary DB instance failover priority to tier-0, and assign a failover priority of tier-1
to the replicas.
B. Deploy an AWS Lambda function that calls the DescribeDBInstances action to establish which instance has failed,
and then use the PromoteReadReplica operation to promote one Aurora Replica to be the primary DB instance.
Configure an Amazon RDS event subscription to send a notification to an Amazon SNS topic to which the Lambda
the function is subscribed.
C. Configure one Aurora Replica to have the same instance class as the primary DB instance. Implement Aurora
PostgreSQL DB cluster cache management. Set the failover priority to tier-0 for the primary DB instance and one replica
with the same instance class. Set the failover priority to tier-1 for the other replicas.
D. Configure both Aurora Replicas to have the same instance class as the primary DB instance. Implement Aurora
PostgreSQL DB cluster cache management. Set the failover priority to tier-0 for the primary DB instance and to tier-1 for
the replicas.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition languages (DDL) and data
manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted
thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after
the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an
incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows.
The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took
a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state
as
quickly as possible to resume full application functionality. Data loss must be minimal.
How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?
A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.
B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from
the restored database to the original database.
C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application
configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.
D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.
Correct Answer: D
 

QUESTION 3
A Database Specialist migrated an existing production MySQL database from on-premises to an Amazon RDS for
MySQL DB instance. However, after the migration, the database needed to be encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. Due
to the size of the database, reloading, the data into an encrypted database would be too time-consuming, so it is not an
option. How should the Database Specialist satisfy this new requirement?
A. Create a snapshot of the unencrypted RDS DB instance. Create an encrypted copy of the unencrypted snapshot.
Restore the encrypted snapshot copy.
B. Modify the RDS DB instance. Enable the AWS KMS encryption option that leverages the AWS CLI.
C. Restore an unencrypted snapshot into a MySQL RDS DB instance that is encrypted.
D. Create an encrypted read replica of the RDS DB instance. Promote it the master.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A company is deploying a solution in Amazon Aurora by migrating from an on-premises system. The IT department has
established an AWS Direct Connect link from the company\\’s data center. The company\\’s Database Specialist has
selected the option to require SSL/TLS for connectivity to prevent plaintext data from being sent over the network. The
migration appears to be working successfully, and the data can be queried from a desktop machine. Two Data Analysts
have been asked to query and validate the data in the new Aurora DB cluster. Both Analysts are unable to connect to
Aurora. Their user names and passwords have been verified as valid and the Database Specialist can connect to the
DB cluster using their accounts. The Database Specialist also verified that the security group configuration allows
network from all corporate IP addresses. What should the Database Specialist do to correct the Data Analysts\\’ inability
to connect?
A. Restart the DB cluster to apply the SSL change.
B. Instruct the Data Analysts to download the root certificate and use the SSL certificate on the connection string to
connect.
C. Add explicit mappings between the Data Analysts\\’ IP addresses and the instance in the security group assigned to
the DB cluster.
D. Modify the Data Analysts\\’ local client firewall to allow network traffic to AWS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A Database Specialist is designing a new database infrastructure for a ride-hailing application. The application data
includes a ride tracking system that stores GPS coordinates for all rides. Real-time statistics and metadata lookups must
be performed with high throughput and microsecond latency. The database should be fault-tolerant with minimal operational overhead and development effort. Which solution meets these requirements in the MOST efficient way?
A. Use Amazon RDS for MySQL as the database and use Amazon ElastiCache
B. Use Amazon DynamoDB as the database and use DynamoDB Accelerator
C. Use Amazon Aurora MySQL as the database and use Aurora\\’s buffer cache
D. Use Amazon DynamoDB as the database and use Amazon API Gateway
Correct Answer: D 
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
A company is going to use an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster for an application backend. The DB cluster
contains some tables with sensitive data. A Database Specialist needs to control the access privileges at the table level.
How can the Database Specialist meet these requirements?
A. Use AWS IAM database authentication and restrict access to the tables using an IAM policy.
B. Configure the rules in a NACL to restrict outbound traffic from the Aurora DB cluster.
C. Execute GRANT and REVOKE commands that restrict access to the tables containing sensitive data.
D. Define access privileges to the tables containing sensitive data in the pg_hba.conf file.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:  click here

QUESTION 7
A Database Specialist is designing a disaster recovery strategy for a production Amazon DynamoDB table.
The table uses the provisioned read/write capacity mode, global secondary indexes, and time to live (TTL). The Database
The specialist has restored the latest backup to a new table. To prepare the new table with identical settings, which steps
should be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Re-create global secondary indexes in the new table
B. Define IAM policies for access to the new table
C. Define the TTL settings
D. Encrypt the table from the AWS Management Console or use the update-table command
E. Set the provisioned read and write capacity
Correct Answer: AE
  Reference: click here       

QUESTION 8
A marketing company is using Amazon DocumentDB and requires that database audit logs be enabled. A Database
The specialist needs to configure monitoring so that all data definition language (DDL) statements performed are visible to
the
Administrator. The Database Specialist has set the audit_logs parameter to enabled in the cluster parameter group.
What should the Database Specialist do to automatically collect the database logs for the Administrator?
A. Enable DocumentDB to export the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs
B. Enable DocumentDB to export the logs to AWS CloudTrail
C. Enable DocumentDB Events to export the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs
D. Configure an AWS Lambda function to download the logs using the download-db-log-file-portion operation and store
the logs in Amazon S3
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 

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QUESTION 1
A Machine Learning Specialist is working for a credit card processing company and receives an unbalanced dataset
containing credit card transactions. It contains 99,000 valid transactions and 1,000 fraudulent transactions The
Specialist is asked to score a model that was run against the dataset The Specialist has been advised that identifying
valid transactions is equally as important as identifying fraudulent transactions What metric is BEST suited to score the
model?
A. Precision
B. Recall
C. Area Under the ROC Curve (AUC)
D. Root Mean Square Error (RMSE)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A Machine Learning Specialist kicks off a hyperparameter tuning job for a tree-based ensemble model using Amazon
SageMaker with Area Under the ROC Curve (AUC) as the objective metric This workflow will eventually be deployed in
a
pipeline that retrains and tunes hyperparameters each night to model click-through on data that goes stale every 24
hours
With the goal of decreasing the amount of time it takes to train these models, and ultimately to decrease costs, the
Specialist wants to reconfigure the input hyperparameter range(s)
Which visualization will accomplish this?
A. A histogram showing whether the most important input feature is Gaussian.
B. A scatter plot with points colored by target variable that uses (-Distributed Stochastic Neighbor Embedding (I-SNE) to
visualize the large number of input variables in an easier-to-read dimension.
C. A scatter plot showing (he performance of the objective metric over each training iteration
D. A scatter plot showing the correlation between maximum tree depth and the objective metric.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A Data Scientist is developing a machine learning model to predict future patient outcomes based on information
collected about each patient and their treatment plans. The model should output a continuous value as its prediction.
The data
available includes labeled outcomes for a set of 4,000 patients. The study was conducted on a group of individuals over
the age of 65 who have a particular disease that is known to worsen with age.
Initial models have performed poorly. While reviewing the underlying data, the Data Scientist notices that, out of 4,000
patient observations, there are 450 where the patient age has been input as 0. The other features for these
observations
appear normal compared to the rest of the sample population.
How should the Data Scientist correct this issue?
A. Drop all records from the dataset where age has been set to 0.
B. Replace the age field value for records with a value of 0 with the mean or median value from the dataset.
C. Drop the age feature from the dataset and train the model using the rest of the features.
D. Use k-means clustering to handle missing features.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A large mobile network operating company is building a machine learning model to predict customers who are likely to
unsubscribe from the service. The company plans to offer an incentive for these customers as the cost of churn is far
greater than the cost of the incentive.
The model produces the following confusion matrix after evaluating on a test dataset of 100 customers:

MLS-C01 exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
A company\\’s Machine Learning Specialist needs to improve the training speed of a time-series forecasting model using TensorFlow. The training is currently implemented on a single-GPU machine and takes approximately 23 hours to
complete. The training needs to be run daily.
The model accuracy js acceptable, but the company anticipates a continuous increase in the size of the training data
and a need to update the model on an hourly, rather than a daily, basis. The company also wants to minimize coding
effort and infrastructure changes
What should the Machine Learning Specialist do to the training solution to allow it to scale for future demand?
A. Do not change the TensorFlow code. Change the machine to one with a more powerful GPU to speed up the
training.
B. Change the TensorFlow code to implement a Horovod distributed framework supported by Amazon SageMaker.
Parallelize the training to as many machines as needed to achieve the business goals.
C. Switch to using a built-in AWS SageMaker DeepAR model. Parallelize the training to as many machines as needed
to achieve the business goals.
D. Move the training to Amazon EMR and distribute the workload to as many machines as needed to achieve the
business goals.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A Machine Learning Specialist has built a model using Amazon SageMaker built-in algorithms and is not getting
expected accurate results The Specialist wants to use hyperparameter optimization to increase the model\\’s accuracy
Which method is the MOST repeatable and requires the LEAST amount of effort to achieve this?
A. Launch multiple training jobs in parallel with different hyperparameters
B. Create an AWS Step Functions workflow that monitors the accuracy in Amazon CloudWatch Logs and relaunches
the training job with a defined list of hyperparameters
C. Create a hyperparameter tuning job and set the accuracy as an objective metric.
D. Create a random walk in the parameter space to iterate through a range of values that should be used for each
individual hyperparameter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A Machine Learning Specialist is developing a custom video recommendation model for an application. The dataset
used to train this model is very large with millions of data points and is hosted in an Amazon S3 bucket. The Specialist
wants to avoid loading all of this data onto an Amazon SageMaker notebook instance because it would take hours to
move and will exceed the attached 5 GB Amazon EBS volume on the notebook instance.
Which approach allows the Specialist to use all the data to train the model?
A. Load a smaller subset of the data into the SageMaker notebook and train locally. Confirm that the training code is
executing and the model parameters seem reasonable. Initiate a SageMaker training job using the full dataset from the
S3 bucket using Pipe input mode.
B. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with an AWS Deep Learning AMI and attach the S3 bucket to the instance. Train
on a small amount of the data to verify the training code and hyperparameters. Go back to Amazon SageMaker and
train using the full dataset
C. Use AWS Glue to train a model using a small subset of the data to confirm that the data will be compatible with
Amazon SageMaker. Initiate a SageMaker training job using the full dataset from the S3 bucket using Pipe input mode.
D. Load a smaller subset of the data into the SageMaker notebook and train locally. Confirm that the training code is
executing and the model parameters seem reasonable. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with an AWS Deep Learning
AMI and attach the S3 bucket to train the full dataset.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A large consumer goods manufacturer has the following products on sale:
1.
34 different toothpaste variants
2.
48 different toothbrush variants
3.
43 different mouthwash variants
The entire sales history of all these products is available in Amazon S3. Currently, the company is using custom-built
autoregressive integrated moving average (ARIMA) models to forecast demand for these products. The company wants
to
predict the demand for a new product that will soon be launched.
Which solution should a Machine Learning Specialist apply?
A. Train a custom ARIMA model to forecast demand for the new product.
B. Train an Amazon SageMaker DeepAR algorithm to forecast demand for the new product
C. Train an Amazon SageMaker k-means clustering algorithm to forecast demand for the new product.
D. Train a custom XGBoost model to forecast demand for the new product
Correct Answer: B
The Amazon SageMaker DeepAR forecasting algorithm is a supervised learning algorithm for forecasting scalar (onedimensional) time series using recurrent neural networks (RNN). Classical forecasting methods, such as autoregressive
integrated moving average (ARIMA) or exponential smoothing (ETS), fit a single model to each individual time series.
They then use that model to extrapolate the time series into the future.
Reference: click here
 

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QUESTION 1
You have a set of Keys defined using the AWS KMS service. You want to stop using a couple of keys , but are not sure
of which services are currently using the keys. Which of the following would be a safe option to stop using the keys from
further usage.
Please select:
A. Delete the keys since anyway there is a 7 day waiting period before deletion
B. Disable the keys
C. Set an alias for the key
D. Change the key material for the key
Correct Answer: B
Option A is invalid because once you schedule the deletion and waiting period ends, you cannot come back from the
deletion process. Option C and D are invalid because these will not check to see if the keys are being used or not The
AWS Documentation mentions the following Deleting a customer master key (CMK) in AWS Key Management Service
(AWS KMS) is destructive and potentially dangerous. It deletes the key material and all metadata associated with the
CMK, and is irreversible. After a CMK is deleted
you can no longer decrypt the data that was encrypted under that CMK, which means that data becomes unrecoverable.
You should delete a CMK only when you are sure that you don\\’t need to use it anymore. If you are not sure, consider
disabling the CMK instead of deleting it. You can re-enable a disabled CMK if you need to use it again later, but you
cannot recover a deleted CMK. For more information on deleting keys from KMS, please visit the below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developereuide/deleting-keys.html The correct answer is: Disable the keys
Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

QUESTION 2
A Lambda function reads metadata from an S3 object and stores the metadata in a DynamoDB table. The function is
triggered whenever an object is stored within the S3 bucket.
How should the Lambda function be given access to the DynamoDB table?
Please select:
A. Create a VPC endpoint for DynamoDB within a VPC. Configure the Lambda function to access resources in the
VPC.
B. Create a resource policy that grants the Lambda function permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Attach the poll
to the DynamoDB table.
C. Create an 1AM user with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Store an access key for that user in the
Lambda environment variables.
D. Create an 1AM service role with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Associate that role with the Lambda
function.
Correct Answer: D
The ideal way is to create an 1AM role which has the required permissions and then associate it with the Lambda
function
The AWS Documentation additionally mentions the following
Each Lambda function has an 1AM role (execution role) associated with it. You specify the 1AM role when you create
your Lambda function. Permissions you grant to this role determine what AWS Lambda can do when it assumes the
role.
There are two types of permissions that you grant to the 1AM role:
If your Lambda function code accesses other AWS resources, such as to read an object from an S3 bucket or write logs
to CloudWatch Logs, you need to grant permissions for relevant Amazon S3 and CloudWatch actions to the role. If the
event source is stream-based (Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and DynamoDB streams), AWS Lambda polls these
streams on your behalf. AWS Lambda needs permissions to poll the stream and read new records on the stream so you
need
to grant the relevant permissions to this role.
Option A is invalid because the VPC endpoint allows access instances in a private subnet to access DynamoDB
Option B is invalid because resources policies are present for resources such as S3 and KMS, but not AWS Lambda
Option C is invalid because AWS Roles should be used and not 1AM Users
For more information on the Lambda permission model, please visit the below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/intro-permission-model.html
The correct answer is: Create an 1AM service role with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table.
Associate that role with the Lambda function.
Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Exp

QUESTION 3
A threat assessment has identified a risk whereby an internal employee could exfiltrate sensitive data from production
host running inside AWS (Account 1). The threat was documented as follows:
Threat description: A malicious actor could upload sensitive data from Server X by configuring credentials for an AWS
account (Account 2) they control and uploading data to an Amazon S3 bucket within their control.
Server X has outbound internet access configured via a proxy server. Legitimate access to S3 is required so that the
application can upload encrypted files to an S3 bucket. Server X is currently using an IAM instance role. The proxy
server is
not able to inspect any of the server communication due to TLS encryption.
Which of the following options will mitigate the threat? (Choose two.)
A. Bypass the proxy and use an S3 VPC endpoint with a policy that whitelists only certain S3 buckets within Account 1.
B. Block outbound access to public S3 endpoints on the proxy server.
C. Configure Network ACLs on Server X to deny access to S3 endpoints.
D. Modify the S3 bucket policy for the legitimate bucket to allow access only from the public IP addresses associated
with the application server.
E. Remove the IAM instance role from the application server and save API access keys in a trusted and encrypted
application config file.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Your development team has started using AWS resources for development purposes. The AWS account has just been
created. Your IT Security team is worried about possible leakage of AWS keys. What is the first level of measure that
should be taken to protect the AWS account.
Please select:
A. Delete the AWS keys for the root account
B. Create 1AM Groups
C. Create 1AM Roles
D. Restrict access using 1AM policies
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A Security Architect is evaluating managed solutions for storage of encryption keys. The requirements are:
-Storage is accessible by using only VPCs.
-Service has tamper-evident controls.
-Access logging is enabled.
-Storage has high availability.
Which of the following services meets these requirements?
A. Amazon S3 with default encryption
B. AWS CloudHSM
C. Amazon DynamoDB with server-side encryption
D. AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company has a customer master key (CMK) with imported key materials. Company policy requires that all encryption
keys must be rotated every year. What can be done to implement the above policy?
A. Enable automatic key rotation annually for the CMK.
B. Use AWS Command Line Interface to create an AWS Lambda function to rotate the existing CMK annually.
C. Import new key material to the existing CMK and manually rotate the CMK.
D. Create a new CMK, import new key material to it, and point the key alias to the new CMK.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An organization wants to deploy a three-tier web application whereby the application servers run on Amazon EC2
instances. These EC2 instances need access to credentials that they will use to authenticate their SQL connections to
an
Amazon RDS DB instance. Also, AWS Lambda functions must issue queries to the RDS database by using the same
database credentials.
The credentials must be stored so that the EC2 instances and the Lambda functions can access them. No other access
is allowed. The access logs must record when the credentials were accessed and by whom.
What should the Security Engineer do to meet these requirements?
A. Store the database credentials in AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS). Create an IAM role with access to
AWS KMS by using the EC2 and Lambda service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance
profile. Attach the instance profile to the EC2 instances. Set up Lambda to use the new role for execution.
B. Store the database credentials in AWS KMS. Create an IAM role with access to KMS by using the EC2 and Lambda
service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance profile. Attach the instance profile to the
EC2 instances and the Lambda function.
C. Store the database credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Create an IAM role with access to Secrets Manager by
using the EC2 and Lambda service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance profile. Attach
the instance profile to the EC2 instances and the Lambda function.
D. Store the database credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Create an IAM role with access to Secrets Manager by
using the EC2 and Lambda service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance profile. Attach
the instance profile to the EC2 instances. Set up Lambda to use the new role for execution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An organization has launched 5 instances: 2 for production and 3 for testing. The organization wants that one particular
group of 1AM users should only access the test instances and not the production ones. How can the organization set that as a part of the policy?
Please select:
A. Launch the test and production instances in separate regions and allow region wise access to the group
B. Define the 1AM policy which allows access based on the instance ID
C. Create an 1AM policy with a condition which allows access to only small instances
D. Define the tags on the test and production servers and add a condition to the 1AM policy which allows access to
specification tags
Correct Answer: D
Tags enable you to categorize your AWS resources in different ways, for example, by purpose, owner, or environment.
This is useful when you have many resources of the same type — you can quickly identify a specific resource based on
the tags you\\’ve assigned to it Option A is invalid because this is not a recommended practices Option B is invalid
because this is an overhead to maintain this in policies Option C is invalid because the instance type will not resolve the
requirement For information on resource tagging, please visit the below URL:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/Usine_Tags.htmll The correct answer is: Define the tags on the
test and production servers and add a condition to the 1AM policy which allows access to specific tags Submit your
Feedback/Queries to our Experts

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Juniper JNCIA JN0-103 Exam Practice Test Questions Answers 1-13

QUESTION 1

bizfittraining JN0-103 exam questions-q1

Which command displays the output shown in the exhibit?
A. show chassis hardware
B. show chassis temperature-thresholds
C. show chassis alarms
D. show chassis environment
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
The marketing team needs access to a server on a subnet 172.0.46.0/24. The next-hop router is 10.0.4.2/30. A static
route on their gateway has been configured to accomplish the task. You want to keep the static route from being
redistributed into dynamic routing protocols.
Which command will satisfy this requirement?
A. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-resolve
B. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30
C. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-readvertise
D. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-redistribute
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about static routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)
A. Static routes remain in the routing table until you remove them or until they become inactive.
B. Static routes must have a next-hop defined.
C. Static routes are learned by neighboring devices and added to their routing tables.
D. Static routes are defined at the [edit routing-instances] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which keystroke is used to auto-complete user-defined variables?
A. End
B. Spacebar
C. Tab
D. Home
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which command causes the Junos OS to temporarily to activate a configuration?
A. commit check
B. commit synchronize
C. commit confirmed
D. commit and-quit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic processing?
A. Exception traffic is only handled by the PFE.
B. Exception traffic is rate-limited across the internal link to protect the RE.
C. Exception traffic is not prioritized during times of congestion.
D. Exception traffic is forwarded based on forwarding table entries.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two features are implemented on the Packet Forwarding Engine? (Choose two.)
A. firewall filters
B. chassis management
C. class of service
D. routing protocol updates
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
How many host addresses are available in the 172.27.0.0/28 network?
A. 6
B. 30
C. 28
D. 14
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which command verifies configuration syntax without applying the changes?
A. commit confirmed
B. commit check
C. commit comment
D. commit and-quit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What information would you find using the CLI help function? (Choose two.)
A. Junos technical publications
B. of trace option events
C. tip for the day
D. of specific system log error messages
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two statements apply when a user has entered private configuration mode by typing configure private? (Choose
two.)
A. All users have their own active configuration.
B. All users have their own private candidate configuration.
C. When a user commits, all nonconflicting changes made by all users are committed.
D. When a user commits, only the user\\’s own changes are committed.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Given the configuration shown below:
set system authentication-order [ tac plus ]
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If the TACACS+ server is not available, the local user database is checked.
B. If the TACACS+ server is available and rejects the username/password provided, the user is not allowed to access
the device.
C. If the TACACS+ server is not available, the user is not allowed to access the device.
D. If the TACACS+ server is available and rejects the username/password provided, the local password database is
checked.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What are two examples of RE exception traffic? (Choose two.)
A. BGP updates that travel through the local router and are destined for a remote router.
B. OSPF hello packets that are sent from a remote router and are destined for the local router.
C. Telnet traffic that is sent from a remote host and is destined for the local router.
D. Telnet traffic that travels through the local router and is destined for a remote end host.
Correct Answer: BC

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Last Update: Sep 17, 2020
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ECCouncil CEH v10 312-50V10 Dumps Practice Question 1-13

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QUESTION 1
TCP/IP stack fingerprinting is the passive collection of configuration attributes from a remote device during standard
layer 4 network communications. Which of the following tools can be used for passive OS fingerprinting?
A. nmap
B. ping
C. tracert
D. tcpdump
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a serious vulnerability in the popular OpenSSL cryptographic software library? This weakness
allows stealing the information protected, under normal conditions, by the SSL/TLS encryption used to secure the
Internet.
A. Heartbleed Bug
B. POODLE
C. SSL/TLS Renegotiation Vulnerability D. Shellshock
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Under what conditions does a secondary name server request a zone transfer from a primary name server?
A. When a primary SOA is higher that a secondary SOA
B. When a secondary SOA is higher that a primary SOA
C. When a primary name server has had its service restarted
D. When a secondary name server has had its service restarted
E. When the TTL falls to zero
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network administrator received an administrative alert at 3:00 a.m. from the intrusion detection system. The alert was
generated because a large number of packets were coming into the network over ports 20 and 21. During analysis, there were no signs of attack on the FTP servers. How should the administrator classify this situation?
A. True negatives
B. False negatives
C. True positives
D. False positives
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of these is capable of searching for and locating rogue access points?
A. HIDS
B. WISS
C. WIPS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
During a security audit of IT processes, an IS auditor found that there were no documented security procedures. What
should the IS auditor do?
A. Identify and evaluate existing practices
B. Create a procedures document
C. Conduct compliance testing
D. Terminate the audit
Correct Answer: A
The auditor should first evaluate existing policies and practices to identify problem areas and opportunities.

QUESTION 7
What is the name of the international standard that establishes a baseline level of confidence in the security functionality
of IT products by providing a set of requirements for evaluation?
A. Blue Book
B. ISO 26029
C. Common Criteria
D. The Wassenaar Agreement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is learning to write exploits in C++ and is using the exploit tool Backtrack. The engineer wants to compile
the newest C++ exploit and name it calc.exe. Which command would the engineer use to accomplish this?
A. g++ hackersExploit.cpp -o calc.exe
B. g++ hackersExploit.py -o calc.exe
C. g++ -i hackersExploit.pl -o calc.exe
D. g++ –compile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
As a Certified Ethical Hacker, you were contracted by a private firm to conduct an external security assessment through
penetration testing.
What document describes the specifics of the testing, the associated violations, and essentially protects both the
organization\\’s interest and your liabilities as a tester?
A. Terms of Engagement
B. Project Scope
C. Non-Disclosure Agreement
D. Service Level Agreement
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A server has been infected by a certain type of Trojan. The hacker intended to utilize it to send and host junk mails.
What type of Trojan did the hacker use?
A. Turtle Trojans
B. Ransomware Trojans
C. Botnet Trojan
D. Banking Trojans
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An NMAP scan of a server shows port 25 is open. What risk could this pose?
A. Open printer sharing
B. Web portal data leak
C. Clear text authentication
D. Active mail relay
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Identify the UDP port that Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses as its primary means of communication?
A. 123
B. 161
C. 69
D. 113
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
During the process of encryption and decryption, what keys are shared?
During the process of encryption and decryption, what keys are shared?
A. Private keys
B. User passwords
C. Public keys
D. Public and private keys
Correct Answer: C

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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 Exam Dumps Questions Answers

QUESTION 1
Which of the following services would restrict connectivity to cloud resources?
A. Security lists
B. Firewall
C. VPN
D. Intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A cloud systems administrator needs to log in to a remote Linux server that is hosted in a public cloud. Which of the
following protocols will the administrator MOST likely use?
A. HTTPS
B. RDP
C. Secure Shell
D. Virtual network computing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
A business analysis team is reviewing a report to try to determine the costs for a cloud application. The report does not
allow separating costs by application.
Which of the following should the team use to BEST report on the costs of the specific cloud application?
A. Right-sizing
B. Content management
C. Optimization
D. Resource tagging
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a cloud service model that organizations use when their third-party ERP tool is provided as a complete service?
A. Public cloud
B. SaaS
C. Hybrid cloud
D. IaaS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which of the following are the main advantages of using ML/AI for data analytics in the cloud as opposed to on
premises? (Choose two.)
A. Cloud providers offer enhanced technical support.
B. Elasticity allows access to a large pool of compute resources.
C. The shared responsibility model offers greater security.
D. AI enables DevOps to build applications easier and faster.
E. A pay-as-you-go approach allows the company to save money.
F. ML enables DevOps to build applications easier and faster.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 6
A human resources department is considering a SaaS-based human resources portal and requires a risk analysis.
Which of the following are requirements to consider? (Choose two.)
A. Support
B. Threats
C. Chargebacks
D. Vulnerabilities
E. Maintenance
F. Gap analysis
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
A company wants to ensure its existing functionalities are not compromised by the addition of a new functionality.
Which of the following is the BEST testing technique?
A. Regression
B. Stress
C. Load
D. Quality
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following technologies would help a game company prepare its cloud infrastructure to support a global
distribution workload of a newly released online game? (Choose two.)
A. Auto-scaling
B. VDI
C. Data portability
D. CDN
E. Templates
F. Blockchain
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
A company deploys a data management capability that reduces RPO. Which of the following BEST describes the
capability needed?
A. Locality
B. Replication
C. Portability
D. Archiving
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A requirement states that an application must be restored within six hours. Which of the following should be included in
the SLA to satisfy this requirement?
A. MTTR
B. RPO
C. ROI
D. RTO
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
An organization plans to keep three of its cloud servers online for another nine months and a fourth server online for a
year. The current pricing is $200 per month per server. The cloud provider announced the sale price of $1,500 per year
per reserved instance.
Which of the following represents the cost savings by converting all four of the cloud servers to reserved instances?
A. $900
B. $1,800
C. $2,400
D. $3,600
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A company has defined a multicloud model.
Which of the following is the MOST important aspect to consider when defining the company\\’s needs?
A. Change management
B. Data sovereignty
C. Data portability
D. Data classification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A contract that defines the quality and performance metrics that are agreeable to both parties is called an:
A. SOP.
B. SOA.
C. SOW.
D. SLA.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported when using Cisco ACI to connect to an external Layer 3 network?
(Choose two.)
A. iBGP
B. VXLAN
C. IS-IS
D. RIPv2
E. eBGP
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010010.html

QUESTION 2
A RADIUS user resolves its role via the Cisco AV Pair. What object does the Cisco AV Pair resolve to?
A. tenant
B. security domain
C. primary Cisco APIC
D. managed object class
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/Security_config/b_Cisco_APIC_Security_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Security_Guide_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 3
An engineer is extending EPG connectivity to an external network. The external network houses the Layer 3 gateway
and other end hosts. Which ACI bridge domain configuration should be used?
A. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Hardware Proxy L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination
Flooding: Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Enabled
B. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Flood L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination Flooding:
Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Enabled
C. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Hardware Proxy L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination
Flooding: Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Disabled
D. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Flood L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination Flooding:
Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Disabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A situation causes a fault to be raised on the APIC. The ACI administrator does not want that fault to be raised because
it is not directly relevant to the environment. Which action should the administrator take to prevent the fault from
appearing?
A. Under System -> Faults, right-click on the fault and select Acknowledge Fault so that acknowledged faults will
immediately disappear.
B. Create a stats threshold policy with both rising and falling thresholds defined so that the critical severity threshold
matches the squelched threshold.
C. Under System -> Faults, right-click on the fault and select Ignore Fault to create a fault severity assignment policy
that hides the fault.
D. Create a new global health score policy that ignores specific faults as identified by their unique fault code.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Bizfittraining 300-620 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. A client reports that the ACI domain connectivity to the fiber channel storage is experiencing a B2B
credit oversubscription. The environment has a SYSLOG server for state collection messages. Which value should be
chosen to clear the critical fault?
A. 300
B. 410
C. 350
D. 510
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A data center administrator is upgrading an ACI fabric. There are 3 APIC controllers in the fabric and all the servers are dual-homed to pairs of leaf switches configured in VPC mode. How should the fabric be upgraded to minimize possible
traffic impact during the upgrade?
A. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
3.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
B. 1. Create two maintenance groups for APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
3.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
C. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
3.
Upgrade the first group of leaf switches.
4.
Upgrade the second group of leaf switches.
D. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of switches.
3.
Upgrade the second group of switches.
4.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Where is the COOP database located?
A. leaf
B. spine
C. APIC
D. endpoint
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html


QUESTION 8
Which type of profile needs to be created to deploy an access port policy group?
A. attachable entity
B. Pod
C. module
D. leaf interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_0110.html

QUESTION 9
An engineer is extending an EPG out of the ACI fabric using static path binding. Which statement about the endpoints is
true?
A. Endpoints must connect directly to the ACI leaf port.
B. External endpoints are in a different bridge domain than the endpoints in the fabric.
C. Endpoint learning encompasses the MAC address only.
D. External endpoints are in the same EPG as the directly attached endpoints.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What must be configured to redistribute externally learned OSPF routes within the ACI fabric?
A. Route Control Profile
B. BGP Route Reflector
C. BGP Inter-leak Route Map
D. PIM Sparse Mode
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010010.html

QUESTION 11
Which two actions extend a Layer 2 domain beyond the ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. extending the routed domain out of the ACI fabric
B. creating a single homed Layer 3 Out
C. creating an external physical network
D. extending the bridge domain out of the ACI fabric
E. extending the EPG out of the ACI fabric
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
In the context of VMM, which protocol between ACI leaf and compute hosts ensures that the policies are pushed to the
leaf switches for immediate and on demand resolution immediacy?
A. VXLAN
B. LLDP
C. ISIS
D. STP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco ACI Layer 4 to Layer 7 service insertion terms on the left to the correct descriptions on the
right.

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Network Appliance NS0-515 Exam Practice Test 1-13

QUESTION 1
In which two locations would you find the WWPNs for a Windows host? (Choose two.)
A. FC switch
B. host\\’s BIOS
C. Windows Device Manager
D. HBA vendor\\’s utility
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1532524 (7)


QUESTION 2
Which file contains the configuration for a multipath driver for FC on Linux systems?
A. /etc/kernel/mp.conf
B. /opt/multipath/multipath.cnf
C. /etc/multipath.conf
D. /etc/dm-multipath.conf
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP12404601


QUESTION 3
A customer intends to use an E2812 system without expansion shelves. The specification for their Windows host
requires that six E-Series data volumes be used. In this scenario, how should the system be configured?
A. one DDP with all the volumes
B. three DDPs with the volumes divided equally
C. one DDP for each volume
D. two DDPs with the volumes divided equally
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.netapp.com/us/media/tr-4725.pdf (37)

QUESTION 4
Your company has deployed an E2824 and has decided to change the host protocol from iSCSI to FC. You use the
storage array profile to review the installed SFPs. In this scenario, which set of supported data rates indicates that you
are using dual-purpose SFPs?
A. 25 Gbps, 10 Gbps
B. 32 Gbps, 16 Gbps, 8 Gbps, 4 Gbps
C. 16 Gbps, 10 Gbps, 8 Gbps, 4 Gbps
D. 16 Gbps, 8 Gbps, 4 Gbps
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2773527 (2)

QUESTION 5
You are setting up asynchronous mirroring between two E2860 systems.
In this scenario, which two prerequisites are required to complete the setup? (Choose two.)
A. Both the primary and secondary systems must be using the same subnets for mirroring connections.
B. Both the primary and secondary systems must have the same premium features licensed.
C. Both systems must be discovered by an Enterprise Management Window (EMW) or SANtricity Unified Manager.
D. The secondary system must have 2X the storage capacity of the primary system.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.

Bizfittraining NS0-515 exam questions-q6

Referring to the exhibit, which cable is an InfiniBand 4X connector?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.admin-sys.org/IMG/pdf/Hardware_Universe.pdf

QUESTION 7
A customer has an E5760 array with a 30-drive Dynamic Disk Pool (DDP) that uses 800 GB SSD drives. The customer
needs to expand the pool by one drive but has only a 1.6 TB SSD drive available. In this scenario, what happens when
the customer attempts to add the 1.6 TB drive to the existing pool?
A. The pool is expanded by 1.6 TB
B. The pool is expanded by 1.6 TiB
C. The pool is expanded by 800 GB
D. An error occurs, and the add fails
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You want to find detailed information about the devices that are connected to the Brocade switch. In this scenario, which
command would accomplish this goal?
A. portloginshow
B. zoneshow
C. nsshow
D. switchshow
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://jp.fujitsu.com/platform/server/primergy/products/note/other/FOS_CmdRef_v720.pdf (849)

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.

Bizfittraining NS0-515 exam questions-q9Referring to the exhibit, what would you select in the search list to see all of the host selections for NetApp E-Series
storage systems?
A. Storage OS
B. SANtricity
C. E-Series SAN Host
D. E-Series Controller Firmware
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andved=2ahUKEwirltOiyq
vnAhVhu3EKHcUrBjsQFjAAegQIAhABandurl=https%3A%2F%2Fcommunity.netapp.com%2Ffukiw75442%2Fattachme
nts% 2Ffukiw75442%2Fe-series-santricity-and-related-plug-ins-discussions%2F557%2F1%2FIMT_ESeries_SAN_Host_20180424_090321201.pdfandusg=AOvVaw1LNpV6vBUxZXiyfgdcnlSz

QUESTION 10
A customer needs to add an EF280 with FC into its existing Brocade fabric but the FC ports in the SANtricity System
Manager are showing the FC ports as down and the LED on the FC HIC is amber.
Which three tasks does the installer need to complete to solve this problem? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the ports are enabled on the switch
B. Verify that the cables are plugged into the switch
C. Verify that the server HBA has the boot BIOS enabled
D. Verify that the EF280s management port is up
E. Verify that the switch zone has the WWPNs for the EF280 and Server HBAs
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which three documents should be provided to the customer after the E-Series installation is complete? (Choose three.)
A. a document showing how much space is available for system expansion
B. a document showing the cabinet layout with cabling information and IP addresses being used
C. a document showing user IDs and passwords for all deployed devices
D. a document with IMT pages that show the supported host configuration and fabric switches in the solution
E. a document showing available power on the UPS with no equipment connected
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.

Bizfittraining NS0-515 exam questions-q12

A customer has a raised floor with a weight limit of 700 lb. per floor tile. The customer\\’s data cabinet weights 90 lb. and
covers a single floor tile. Referring to the exhibit, what is the maximum number of E2824 shelves possible to be
installed?
A. 22
B. 10
C. 6
D. 14
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your AutoSupport does not automatically send reports to NetApp\\’s ActiveIQ tool.
In this scenario, how do you access the data that would have been sent using the AutoSupport feature?
A. Use SANtricity Unified Manager to collect the support data remotely
B. Access the event log by using SANtricity System Manager
C. Use SANtricity System Manager to manually collect the support data
D. Ask NetApp Support to help you to access the data by using special support tools
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://mysupport.netapp.com/NOW/public/eseries/sam_archive1150/index.html

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  • NS0-591 :NetApp Certified Support Engineer, ONTAP Specialist
  • NS0-910 :TCache Internet Access and Security
  • NS0-920 :NetCache Deployment Options and Streaming

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McAfee Product Specialist MA0-103 Exam Practice Test 1-13

QUESTION 1
What rule prevents unauthorized executables and potential malware from running directly from Removable Storage
Devices?
A. Removable Storage Protection Rule
B. Removable Storage File Access Rule
C. Removable Storage Device Rule
D. Removable Storage File Block Rule
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is critical for troubleshooting system health?
A. System log
B. Administrator log
C. Agent log
D. Policy analyzer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
The DLP agent status dashboard monitor displays “no data found”. Which server task should be reviewed?
A. DLP incident tasks runner
B. DLP MA properties reporting task
C. DLP policy push task
D. DLP dashboard status task
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
What rule is used to monitor protected file transfer to network shares?
A. Network Communication Protection Rule
B. Network Share Protection Rule
C. File System Protection Rule
D. File System Discovery Rule
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
How can different modules within the DLP agent configuration be enabled?
A. Use the miscellaneous section
B. Use the advanced configuration section
C. Use the application modules section
D. Use the user interface service section
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An organization wants to prevent sensitive data from being uploaded to unauthorized websites. Which of the following
types of protection rule can the DLP Endpoint administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. File System Protection Rule
B. Cloud Protection Rule
C. Application Protection Rule
D. Web Post Protection Rule
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a potential indicator of an issue with the DLP Endpoint client?
A. Multiple FCAGTE processes are present in the Task Manager
B. Multiple FCAG processes are present in the Task Manager
C. FCAGSD process is present in the Task Manager
D. FCAGTE is running as a user instead of the System account in the Task Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is NOT a DLPe incident task?
A. Mail notification task
B. Purge task
C. Set reviewer task
D. Purge client task
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
An organization is concerned that employees are using their personal web based email accounts to conduct work on
internal documents after hours. Which of the following can the DLP Endpoint Administrator configure to mitigate this
risk?
A. Web Post Protection Rule
B. Email Protection Rule
C. Cloud Protection Rule
D. File System Protection Rule
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
How can DLP be used to prohibit users from sending confidential files to partners?
A. Create a partner list definition and add to applicable protection rules
B. Create a partner list and apply to device control C, Use protection rules to stop copying of confidential files
C. Prevent confidential files from being used
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What must be deployed to all target computers before an endpoint policy can be distributed?
A. A Policy Analyzer
B. A DLP global policy
C. The McAfee DLPe extension
D. A supported version of McAfee Agent
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Applications in which of the following groups will NOT have their Disk Activity scanned for sensitive data?
A. Editor
B. Archiver
C. Installer
D. Trusted
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which of the following protects the DLP Endpoint client from malicious interferences?
A. Agent Watchdogs Only
B. VirusScan Enterprise
C. Host Intrusion Prevention System
D. Data Access Protection module and Agent Watchdogs
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Q&As: 219

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23.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging. You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync. What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
070-347 exam Answer: D
24.DRAG DROP
Your company uses Office 365.You are planning a user-driven deployment of Office 365 ProPlus. You need to provide users with the minimum requirements for running Office 365 ProPlus. Which requirements should you provide? To answer, drag the appropriate requirements to the correct targets. Each requirement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company is deploying Office 365 ProPlus.
The company has the following deployment requirements:
– Office applications must be installed from a local network location by using a self-service model.
– Office application updates must not be deployed until they have been tested for compatibility.
– The installation of Office applications and updates must occur without user interaction.
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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70-347 dumps Answer:
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26.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company’s environment includes Office 2007, Office 2010, Office 2013, Windows 7, and Windows 8.The company uses Office Telemetry. You need to collect Office version usage data for an upcoming migration to Office 365 ProPlus. What should you do?
A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Answer: A
27.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data. What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.

B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
070-347 pdf Answer: C
28.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently subscribed to Office 365 ProPlus. When performing a test deployment, you receive the following error message: “Windows cannot find ‘C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office 15 \clientX64\integratedOffice.exe’.Make sure you typed the name correctly, and then try again.” You need to successfully complete the test deployment. Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Manually remove the registry subkeys associated with Office 2013, and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
B. completely uninstall existing versions of Office 2013 and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
C. Download the Office 365 ProPlus package to a file share, and then deploy Office 365 ProPlus by using Group Policy.
D. Automate the installation of Office 365 ProPlus applications by using Microsoft System Center
Configuration Manager.
Answer: A, D
29.Which storage method will make data most accessible?
A. Optical disk
B. Magnetic Disk
C. Jukebox
D. Tape
070-347 vce Correct Answer: B
30.Which task is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data center object?
A. Determining which device ports have the highest rates of errors
B. Viewing a list of file systems that are nearly full
C. Monitoring the status of processes on the host
D. Listing the number of disks in all storage arrays
Correct Answer: B
31.Which event is known as a head crash?
A. Two R/W heads have touched each other
B. A read head and a write head have touched each other
C. A R/W head has touched the disk data area
D. Two adjacent disk platters have touched each other
E. SAN
070-347 exam Correct Answer: C
32.What is a disadvantage of array based remote replication?
A. Uses host CPU resources
B. Cannot manage log shipping
C. Limited to specific databases
D. Limited to specific operating systems
Correct Answer: B
33.What is a valid member of a zone in a SAN?
A. The IP address of a host
B. A Domain ID
C. The serial number of a storage array
D. A HBA WWPN
70-347 dumps Correct Answer: D
34.What failure does RAID technology guard against?
A. Host bus Adapter failures
B. Host failures
C. Switch Failure
D. Disk Failure

Correct Answer: D
35.What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination device?
A. Faster restore time
B. Random access
C. RAID Protection
D. Portability
070-347 pdf Correct Answer: D
36.Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit?
1. Read data is sent to the host
2. Host sends read request to storage system
3. Cache is searched, and data is found
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 3, 1, 2
C. 1, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 3
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

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In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware
failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What
should you do?

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A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the
forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.

What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is
named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by
using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU)
named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012
R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

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