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Latest Cisco 300-710 exam questions

QUESTION 1
Which command must be run to generate troubleshooting files on an FTD?
A. system support view-files
B. sudo sf_troubleshoot.pl
C. system generate-troubleshoot all
D. show tech-support
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-defense-center/117663-technoteSourceFire-00.html


QUESTION 2
What is the disadvantage of setting up a site-to-site VPN in a clustered-units environment?
A. VPN connections can be re-established only if the failed master unit recovers.
B. Smart License is required to maintain VPN connections simultaneously across all cluster units.
C. VPN connections must be re-established when a new master unit is elected.
D. Only established VPN connections are maintained when a new master unit is elected.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/fxos/clustering/ftd-clustersolution.html#concept_g32_yml_y2b


QUESTION 3
Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC?
A. box lever chart
B. arrow chart
C. bar chart
D. benchmark chart
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

QUESTION 4
Which object type supports object overrides?
A. time range
B. security group tag
C. network object
D. DNS server group
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reusable_Objects.html#concept_8BFE8B9A83D742D9B647A74F7AD50053

……

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QUESTION 1
With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic
that passes through the appliance?
A. inline set
B. passive
C. routed
D. inline tap
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints policy is used only for monitoring endpoint actively?
A. Windows domain controller
B. audit
C. triage
D. protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/amp-endpoints/214933-amp-for-endpoints-deploymentmethodology.html

QUESTION 3
What is a functionality of port objects in Cisco FMC?
A. to mix transport protocols when setting both source and destination port conditions in a rule
B. to represent protocols other than TCP, UDP, and ICMP
C. to represent all protocols in the same way
D. to add any protocol other than TCP or UDP for source port conditions in access control rules.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html
 

QUESTION 4
Which command-line mode is supported from the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?
A. privileged
B. user
C. configuration
D. admin
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev66/command_line_reference.pdf


QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Firepower feature is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time?
A. rate-limiting
B. suspending
C. correlation
D. thresholding
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-Global-Threshold.html


QUESTION 6
What is a result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?
A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing
connections.
B. Integrated Routing and Bridging is supported on the master unit.
C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit
fails.
D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
What is a valid Cisco AMP file disposition?
A. non-malicious
B. malware
C. known-good
D. pristine
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reference_a_wrapper_Chapter_topic_here.html


QUESTION 8
After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload an MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
B. /sf/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
C. /etc/sf/DCEALERT.MIB
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf
 

QUESTION 9
On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?
A. transparent inline mode
B. TAP mode
C. strict TCP enforcement
D. propagate link state
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum bit size that Cisco FMC supports for HTTPS certificates?
A. 1024
B. 8192
C. 4096
D. 2048
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev61/system_configuration.html


QUESTION 11
Which object type supports object overrides?
A. time range
B. security group tag
C. network object
D. DNS server group
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reusable_Objects.html#concept_8BFE8B9A83D742D9B647A74F7AD50053

QUESTION 12
Which action should be taken after editing an object that is used inside an access control policy?
A. Delete the existing object in use.
B. Refresh the Cisco FMC GUI for the access control policy.
C. Redeploy the updated configuration.
D. Create another rule using a different object name.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/630/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev63/reusable_objects.html


QUESTION 13
Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?
A. STP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html

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QUESTION 1
A company is using an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster with a large primary instance master and two large
Aurora Replicas for high availability and read-only workload scaling. A failover event occurs and application
performance is poor for several minutes. During this time, application servers in all Availability Zones are healthy and
responding normally. What should the company do to eliminate this application performance issue?
A. Configure both of the Aurora Replicas to the same instance class as the primary DB instance. Enable cache
coherence on the DB cluster set the primary DB instance failover priority to tier-0, and assign a failover priority of tier-1
to the replicas.
B. Deploy an AWS Lambda function that calls the DescribeDBInstances action to establish which instance has failed,
and then use the PromoteReadReplica operation to promote one Aurora Replica to be the primary DB instance.
Configure an Amazon RDS event subscription to send a notification to an Amazon SNS topic to which the Lambda
the function is subscribed.
C. Configure one Aurora Replica to have the same instance class as the primary DB instance. Implement Aurora
PostgreSQL DB cluster cache management. Set the failover priority to tier-0 for the primary DB instance and one replica
with the same instance class. Set the failover priority to tier-1 for the other replicas.
D. Configure both Aurora Replicas to have the same instance class as the primary DB instance. Implement Aurora
PostgreSQL DB cluster cache management. Set the failover priority to tier-0 for the primary DB instance and to tier-1 for
the replicas.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition languages (DDL) and data
manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted
thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after
the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an
incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows.
The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took
a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state
as
quickly as possible to resume full application functionality. Data loss must be minimal.
How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?
A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.
B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from
the restored database to the original database.
C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application
configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.
D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.
Correct Answer: D
 

QUESTION 3
A Database Specialist migrated an existing production MySQL database from on-premises to an Amazon RDS for
MySQL DB instance. However, after the migration, the database needed to be encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. Due
to the size of the database, reloading, the data into an encrypted database would be too time-consuming, so it is not an
option. How should the Database Specialist satisfy this new requirement?
A. Create a snapshot of the unencrypted RDS DB instance. Create an encrypted copy of the unencrypted snapshot.
Restore the encrypted snapshot copy.
B. Modify the RDS DB instance. Enable the AWS KMS encryption option that leverages the AWS CLI.
C. Restore an unencrypted snapshot into a MySQL RDS DB instance that is encrypted.
D. Create an encrypted read replica of the RDS DB instance. Promote it the master.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A company is deploying a solution in Amazon Aurora by migrating from an on-premises system. The IT department has
established an AWS Direct Connect link from the company\\’s data center. The company\\’s Database Specialist has
selected the option to require SSL/TLS for connectivity to prevent plaintext data from being sent over the network. The
migration appears to be working successfully, and the data can be queried from a desktop machine. Two Data Analysts
have been asked to query and validate the data in the new Aurora DB cluster. Both Analysts are unable to connect to
Aurora. Their user names and passwords have been verified as valid and the Database Specialist can connect to the
DB cluster using their accounts. The Database Specialist also verified that the security group configuration allows
network from all corporate IP addresses. What should the Database Specialist do to correct the Data Analysts\\’ inability
to connect?
A. Restart the DB cluster to apply the SSL change.
B. Instruct the Data Analysts to download the root certificate and use the SSL certificate on the connection string to
connect.
C. Add explicit mappings between the Data Analysts\\’ IP addresses and the instance in the security group assigned to
the DB cluster.
D. Modify the Data Analysts\\’ local client firewall to allow network traffic to AWS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A Database Specialist is designing a new database infrastructure for a ride-hailing application. The application data
includes a ride tracking system that stores GPS coordinates for all rides. Real-time statistics and metadata lookups must
be performed with high throughput and microsecond latency. The database should be fault-tolerant with minimal operational overhead and development effort. Which solution meets these requirements in the MOST efficient way?
A. Use Amazon RDS for MySQL as the database and use Amazon ElastiCache
B. Use Amazon DynamoDB as the database and use DynamoDB Accelerator
C. Use Amazon Aurora MySQL as the database and use Aurora\\’s buffer cache
D. Use Amazon DynamoDB as the database and use Amazon API Gateway
Correct Answer: D 
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 6
A company is going to use an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster for an application backend. The DB cluster
contains some tables with sensitive data. A Database Specialist needs to control the access privileges at the table level.
How can the Database Specialist meet these requirements?
A. Use AWS IAM database authentication and restrict access to the tables using an IAM policy.
B. Configure the rules in a NACL to restrict outbound traffic from the Aurora DB cluster.
C. Execute GRANT and REVOKE commands that restrict access to the tables containing sensitive data.
D. Define access privileges to the tables containing sensitive data in the pg_hba.conf file.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:  click here

QUESTION 7
A Database Specialist is designing a disaster recovery strategy for a production Amazon DynamoDB table.
The table uses the provisioned read/write capacity mode, global secondary indexes, and time to live (TTL). The Database
The specialist has restored the latest backup to a new table. To prepare the new table with identical settings, which steps
should be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Re-create global secondary indexes in the new table
B. Define IAM policies for access to the new table
C. Define the TTL settings
D. Encrypt the table from the AWS Management Console or use the update-table command
E. Set the provisioned read and write capacity
Correct Answer: AE
  Reference: click here       

QUESTION 8
A marketing company is using Amazon DocumentDB and requires that database audit logs be enabled. A Database
The specialist needs to configure monitoring so that all data definition language (DDL) statements performed are visible to
the
Administrator. The Database Specialist has set the audit_logs parameter to enabled in the cluster parameter group.
What should the Database Specialist do to automatically collect the database logs for the Administrator?
A. Enable DocumentDB to export the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs
B. Enable DocumentDB to export the logs to AWS CloudTrail
C. Enable DocumentDB Events to export the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs
D. Configure an AWS Lambda function to download the logs using the download-db-log-file-portion operation and store
the logs in Amazon S3
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 

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QUESTION 1
A Machine Learning Specialist is working for a credit card processing company and receives an unbalanced dataset
containing credit card transactions. It contains 99,000 valid transactions and 1,000 fraudulent transactions The
Specialist is asked to score a model that was run against the dataset The Specialist has been advised that identifying
valid transactions is equally as important as identifying fraudulent transactions What metric is BEST suited to score the
model?
A. Precision
B. Recall
C. Area Under the ROC Curve (AUC)
D. Root Mean Square Error (RMSE)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A Machine Learning Specialist kicks off a hyperparameter tuning job for a tree-based ensemble model using Amazon
SageMaker with Area Under the ROC Curve (AUC) as the objective metric This workflow will eventually be deployed in
a
pipeline that retrains and tunes hyperparameters each night to model click-through on data that goes stale every 24
hours
With the goal of decreasing the amount of time it takes to train these models, and ultimately to decrease costs, the
Specialist wants to reconfigure the input hyperparameter range(s)
Which visualization will accomplish this?
A. A histogram showing whether the most important input feature is Gaussian.
B. A scatter plot with points colored by target variable that uses (-Distributed Stochastic Neighbor Embedding (I-SNE) to
visualize the large number of input variables in an easier-to-read dimension.
C. A scatter plot showing (he performance of the objective metric over each training iteration
D. A scatter plot showing the correlation between maximum tree depth and the objective metric.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A Data Scientist is developing a machine learning model to predict future patient outcomes based on information
collected about each patient and their treatment plans. The model should output a continuous value as its prediction.
The data
available includes labeled outcomes for a set of 4,000 patients. The study was conducted on a group of individuals over
the age of 65 who have a particular disease that is known to worsen with age.
Initial models have performed poorly. While reviewing the underlying data, the Data Scientist notices that, out of 4,000
patient observations, there are 450 where the patient age has been input as 0. The other features for these
observations
appear normal compared to the rest of the sample population.
How should the Data Scientist correct this issue?
A. Drop all records from the dataset where age has been set to 0.
B. Replace the age field value for records with a value of 0 with the mean or median value from the dataset.
C. Drop the age feature from the dataset and train the model using the rest of the features.
D. Use k-means clustering to handle missing features.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A large mobile network operating company is building a machine learning model to predict customers who are likely to
unsubscribe from the service. The company plans to offer an incentive for these customers as the cost of churn is far
greater than the cost of the incentive.
The model produces the following confusion matrix after evaluating on a test dataset of 100 customers:

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QUESTION 5
A company\\’s Machine Learning Specialist needs to improve the training speed of a time-series forecasting model using TensorFlow. The training is currently implemented on a single-GPU machine and takes approximately 23 hours to
complete. The training needs to be run daily.
The model accuracy js acceptable, but the company anticipates a continuous increase in the size of the training data
and a need to update the model on an hourly, rather than a daily, basis. The company also wants to minimize coding
effort and infrastructure changes
What should the Machine Learning Specialist do to the training solution to allow it to scale for future demand?
A. Do not change the TensorFlow code. Change the machine to one with a more powerful GPU to speed up the
training.
B. Change the TensorFlow code to implement a Horovod distributed framework supported by Amazon SageMaker.
Parallelize the training to as many machines as needed to achieve the business goals.
C. Switch to using a built-in AWS SageMaker DeepAR model. Parallelize the training to as many machines as needed
to achieve the business goals.
D. Move the training to Amazon EMR and distribute the workload to as many machines as needed to achieve the
business goals.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A Machine Learning Specialist has built a model using Amazon SageMaker built-in algorithms and is not getting
expected accurate results The Specialist wants to use hyperparameter optimization to increase the model\\’s accuracy
Which method is the MOST repeatable and requires the LEAST amount of effort to achieve this?
A. Launch multiple training jobs in parallel with different hyperparameters
B. Create an AWS Step Functions workflow that monitors the accuracy in Amazon CloudWatch Logs and relaunches
the training job with a defined list of hyperparameters
C. Create a hyperparameter tuning job and set the accuracy as an objective metric.
D. Create a random walk in the parameter space to iterate through a range of values that should be used for each
individual hyperparameter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A Machine Learning Specialist is developing a custom video recommendation model for an application. The dataset
used to train this model is very large with millions of data points and is hosted in an Amazon S3 bucket. The Specialist
wants to avoid loading all of this data onto an Amazon SageMaker notebook instance because it would take hours to
move and will exceed the attached 5 GB Amazon EBS volume on the notebook instance.
Which approach allows the Specialist to use all the data to train the model?
A. Load a smaller subset of the data into the SageMaker notebook and train locally. Confirm that the training code is
executing and the model parameters seem reasonable. Initiate a SageMaker training job using the full dataset from the
S3 bucket using Pipe input mode.
B. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with an AWS Deep Learning AMI and attach the S3 bucket to the instance. Train
on a small amount of the data to verify the training code and hyperparameters. Go back to Amazon SageMaker and
train using the full dataset
C. Use AWS Glue to train a model using a small subset of the data to confirm that the data will be compatible with
Amazon SageMaker. Initiate a SageMaker training job using the full dataset from the S3 bucket using Pipe input mode.
D. Load a smaller subset of the data into the SageMaker notebook and train locally. Confirm that the training code is
executing and the model parameters seem reasonable. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with an AWS Deep Learning
AMI and attach the S3 bucket to train the full dataset.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A large consumer goods manufacturer has the following products on sale:
1.
34 different toothpaste variants
2.
48 different toothbrush variants
3.
43 different mouthwash variants
The entire sales history of all these products is available in Amazon S3. Currently, the company is using custom-built
autoregressive integrated moving average (ARIMA) models to forecast demand for these products. The company wants
to
predict the demand for a new product that will soon be launched.
Which solution should a Machine Learning Specialist apply?
A. Train a custom ARIMA model to forecast demand for the new product.
B. Train an Amazon SageMaker DeepAR algorithm to forecast demand for the new product
C. Train an Amazon SageMaker k-means clustering algorithm to forecast demand for the new product.
D. Train a custom XGBoost model to forecast demand for the new product
Correct Answer: B
The Amazon SageMaker DeepAR forecasting algorithm is a supervised learning algorithm for forecasting scalar (onedimensional) time series using recurrent neural networks (RNN). Classical forecasting methods, such as autoregressive
integrated moving average (ARIMA) or exponential smoothing (ETS), fit a single model to each individual time series.
They then use that model to extrapolate the time series into the future.
Reference: click here
 

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QUESTION 1
You have a set of Keys defined using the AWS KMS service. You want to stop using a couple of keys , but are not sure
of which services are currently using the keys. Which of the following would be a safe option to stop using the keys from
further usage.
Please select:
A. Delete the keys since anyway there is a 7 day waiting period before deletion
B. Disable the keys
C. Set an alias for the key
D. Change the key material for the key
Correct Answer: B
Option A is invalid because once you schedule the deletion and waiting period ends, you cannot come back from the
deletion process. Option C and D are invalid because these will not check to see if the keys are being used or not The
AWS Documentation mentions the following Deleting a customer master key (CMK) in AWS Key Management Service
(AWS KMS) is destructive and potentially dangerous. It deletes the key material and all metadata associated with the
CMK, and is irreversible. After a CMK is deleted
you can no longer decrypt the data that was encrypted under that CMK, which means that data becomes unrecoverable.
You should delete a CMK only when you are sure that you don\\’t need to use it anymore. If you are not sure, consider
disabling the CMK instead of deleting it. You can re-enable a disabled CMK if you need to use it again later, but you
cannot recover a deleted CMK. For more information on deleting keys from KMS, please visit the below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developereuide/deleting-keys.html The correct answer is: Disable the keys
Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

QUESTION 2
A Lambda function reads metadata from an S3 object and stores the metadata in a DynamoDB table. The function is
triggered whenever an object is stored within the S3 bucket.
How should the Lambda function be given access to the DynamoDB table?
Please select:
A. Create a VPC endpoint for DynamoDB within a VPC. Configure the Lambda function to access resources in the
VPC.
B. Create a resource policy that grants the Lambda function permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Attach the poll
to the DynamoDB table.
C. Create an 1AM user with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Store an access key for that user in the
Lambda environment variables.
D. Create an 1AM service role with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Associate that role with the Lambda
function.
Correct Answer: D
The ideal way is to create an 1AM role which has the required permissions and then associate it with the Lambda
function
The AWS Documentation additionally mentions the following
Each Lambda function has an 1AM role (execution role) associated with it. You specify the 1AM role when you create
your Lambda function. Permissions you grant to this role determine what AWS Lambda can do when it assumes the
role.
There are two types of permissions that you grant to the 1AM role:
If your Lambda function code accesses other AWS resources, such as to read an object from an S3 bucket or write logs
to CloudWatch Logs, you need to grant permissions for relevant Amazon S3 and CloudWatch actions to the role. If the
event source is stream-based (Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and DynamoDB streams), AWS Lambda polls these
streams on your behalf. AWS Lambda needs permissions to poll the stream and read new records on the stream so you
need
to grant the relevant permissions to this role.
Option A is invalid because the VPC endpoint allows access instances in a private subnet to access DynamoDB
Option B is invalid because resources policies are present for resources such as S3 and KMS, but not AWS Lambda
Option C is invalid because AWS Roles should be used and not 1AM Users
For more information on the Lambda permission model, please visit the below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/intro-permission-model.html
The correct answer is: Create an 1AM service role with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table.
Associate that role with the Lambda function.
Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Exp

QUESTION 3
A threat assessment has identified a risk whereby an internal employee could exfiltrate sensitive data from production
host running inside AWS (Account 1). The threat was documented as follows:
Threat description: A malicious actor could upload sensitive data from Server X by configuring credentials for an AWS
account (Account 2) they control and uploading data to an Amazon S3 bucket within their control.
Server X has outbound internet access configured via a proxy server. Legitimate access to S3 is required so that the
application can upload encrypted files to an S3 bucket. Server X is currently using an IAM instance role. The proxy
server is
not able to inspect any of the server communication due to TLS encryption.
Which of the following options will mitigate the threat? (Choose two.)
A. Bypass the proxy and use an S3 VPC endpoint with a policy that whitelists only certain S3 buckets within Account 1.
B. Block outbound access to public S3 endpoints on the proxy server.
C. Configure Network ACLs on Server X to deny access to S3 endpoints.
D. Modify the S3 bucket policy for the legitimate bucket to allow access only from the public IP addresses associated
with the application server.
E. Remove the IAM instance role from the application server and save API access keys in a trusted and encrypted
application config file.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Your development team has started using AWS resources for development purposes. The AWS account has just been
created. Your IT Security team is worried about possible leakage of AWS keys. What is the first level of measure that
should be taken to protect the AWS account.
Please select:
A. Delete the AWS keys for the root account
B. Create 1AM Groups
C. Create 1AM Roles
D. Restrict access using 1AM policies
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A Security Architect is evaluating managed solutions for storage of encryption keys. The requirements are:
-Storage is accessible by using only VPCs.
-Service has tamper-evident controls.
-Access logging is enabled.
-Storage has high availability.
Which of the following services meets these requirements?
A. Amazon S3 with default encryption
B. AWS CloudHSM
C. Amazon DynamoDB with server-side encryption
D. AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company has a customer master key (CMK) with imported key materials. Company policy requires that all encryption
keys must be rotated every year. What can be done to implement the above policy?
A. Enable automatic key rotation annually for the CMK.
B. Use AWS Command Line Interface to create an AWS Lambda function to rotate the existing CMK annually.
C. Import new key material to the existing CMK and manually rotate the CMK.
D. Create a new CMK, import new key material to it, and point the key alias to the new CMK.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An organization wants to deploy a three-tier web application whereby the application servers run on Amazon EC2
instances. These EC2 instances need access to credentials that they will use to authenticate their SQL connections to
an
Amazon RDS DB instance. Also, AWS Lambda functions must issue queries to the RDS database by using the same
database credentials.
The credentials must be stored so that the EC2 instances and the Lambda functions can access them. No other access
is allowed. The access logs must record when the credentials were accessed and by whom.
What should the Security Engineer do to meet these requirements?
A. Store the database credentials in AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS). Create an IAM role with access to
AWS KMS by using the EC2 and Lambda service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance
profile. Attach the instance profile to the EC2 instances. Set up Lambda to use the new role for execution.
B. Store the database credentials in AWS KMS. Create an IAM role with access to KMS by using the EC2 and Lambda
service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance profile. Attach the instance profile to the
EC2 instances and the Lambda function.
C. Store the database credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Create an IAM role with access to Secrets Manager by
using the EC2 and Lambda service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance profile. Attach
the instance profile to the EC2 instances and the Lambda function.
D. Store the database credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Create an IAM role with access to Secrets Manager by
using the EC2 and Lambda service principals in the role\\’s trust policy. Add the role to an EC2 instance profile. Attach
the instance profile to the EC2 instances. Set up Lambda to use the new role for execution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An organization has launched 5 instances: 2 for production and 3 for testing. The organization wants that one particular
group of 1AM users should only access the test instances and not the production ones. How can the organization set that as a part of the policy?
Please select:
A. Launch the test and production instances in separate regions and allow region wise access to the group
B. Define the 1AM policy which allows access based on the instance ID
C. Create an 1AM policy with a condition which allows access to only small instances
D. Define the tags on the test and production servers and add a condition to the 1AM policy which allows access to
specification tags
Correct Answer: D
Tags enable you to categorize your AWS resources in different ways, for example, by purpose, owner, or environment.
This is useful when you have many resources of the same type — you can quickly identify a specific resource based on
the tags you\\’ve assigned to it Option A is invalid because this is not a recommended practices Option B is invalid
because this is an overhead to maintain this in policies Option C is invalid because the instance type will not resolve the
requirement For information on resource tagging, please visit the below URL:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/Usine_Tags.htmll The correct answer is: Define the tags on the
test and production servers and add a condition to the 1AM policy which allows access to specific tags Submit your
Feedback/Queries to our Experts

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Juniper JNCIA JN0-103 Exam Practice Test Questions Answers 1-13

QUESTION 1

bizfittraining JN0-103 exam questions-q1

Which command displays the output shown in the exhibit?
A. show chassis hardware
B. show chassis temperature-thresholds
C. show chassis alarms
D. show chassis environment
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
The marketing team needs access to a server on a subnet 172.0.46.0/24. The next-hop router is 10.0.4.2/30. A static
route on their gateway has been configured to accomplish the task. You want to keep the static route from being
redistributed into dynamic routing protocols.
Which command will satisfy this requirement?
A. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-resolve
B. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30
C. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-readvertise
D. Set routing-options static route 172.0.46.0/24 next-hop 10.0.4.2/30 no-redistribute
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about static routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)
A. Static routes remain in the routing table until you remove them or until they become inactive.
B. Static routes must have a next-hop defined.
C. Static routes are learned by neighboring devices and added to their routing tables.
D. Static routes are defined at the [edit routing-instances] hierarchy.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which keystroke is used to auto-complete user-defined variables?
A. End
B. Spacebar
C. Tab
D. Home
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which command causes the Junos OS to temporarily to activate a configuration?
A. commit check
B. commit synchronize
C. commit confirmed
D. commit and-quit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic processing?
A. Exception traffic is only handled by the PFE.
B. Exception traffic is rate-limited across the internal link to protect the RE.
C. Exception traffic is not prioritized during times of congestion.
D. Exception traffic is forwarded based on forwarding table entries.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two features are implemented on the Packet Forwarding Engine? (Choose two.)
A. firewall filters
B. chassis management
C. class of service
D. routing protocol updates
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
How many host addresses are available in the 172.27.0.0/28 network?
A. 6
B. 30
C. 28
D. 14
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which command verifies configuration syntax without applying the changes?
A. commit confirmed
B. commit check
C. commit comment
D. commit and-quit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What information would you find using the CLI help function? (Choose two.)
A. Junos technical publications
B. of trace option events
C. tip for the day
D. of specific system log error messages
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two statements apply when a user has entered private configuration mode by typing configure private? (Choose
two.)
A. All users have their own active configuration.
B. All users have their own private candidate configuration.
C. When a user commits, all nonconflicting changes made by all users are committed.
D. When a user commits, only the user\\’s own changes are committed.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Given the configuration shown below:
set system authentication-order [ tac plus ]
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If the TACACS+ server is not available, the local user database is checked.
B. If the TACACS+ server is available and rejects the username/password provided, the user is not allowed to access
the device.
C. If the TACACS+ server is not available, the user is not allowed to access the device.
D. If the TACACS+ server is available and rejects the username/password provided, the local password database is
checked.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What are two examples of RE exception traffic? (Choose two.)
A. BGP updates that travel through the local router and are destined for a remote router.
B. OSPF hello packets that are sent from a remote router and are destined for the local router.
C. Telnet traffic that is sent from a remote host and is destined for the local router.
D. Telnet traffic that travels through the local router and is destined for a remote end host.
Correct Answer: BC

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