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Exam name: Certified Ethical Hacker Exam (C|EH v10)
Last Update: Sep 17, 2020
Questions: 747
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ECCouncil CEH v10 312-50V10 Dumps Practice Question 1-13

Share some (Practical) 312-50v10 exam questions and answers below.

QUESTION 1
TCP/IP stack fingerprinting is the passive collection of configuration attributes from a remote device during standard
layer 4 network communications. Which of the following tools can be used for passive OS fingerprinting?
A. nmap
B. ping
C. tracert
D. tcpdump
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a serious vulnerability in the popular OpenSSL cryptographic software library? This weakness
allows stealing the information protected, under normal conditions, by the SSL/TLS encryption used to secure the
Internet.
A. Heartbleed Bug
B. POODLE
C. SSL/TLS Renegotiation Vulnerability D. Shellshock
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Under what conditions does a secondary name server request a zone transfer from a primary name server?
A. When a primary SOA is higher that a secondary SOA
B. When a secondary SOA is higher that a primary SOA
C. When a primary name server has had its service restarted
D. When a secondary name server has had its service restarted
E. When the TTL falls to zero
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network administrator received an administrative alert at 3:00 a.m. from the intrusion detection system. The alert was
generated because a large number of packets were coming into the network over ports 20 and 21. During analysis, there were no signs of attack on the FTP servers. How should the administrator classify this situation?
A. True negatives
B. False negatives
C. True positives
D. False positives
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of these is capable of searching for and locating rogue access points?
A. HIDS
B. WISS
C. WIPS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
During a security audit of IT processes, an IS auditor found that there were no documented security procedures. What
should the IS auditor do?
A. Identify and evaluate existing practices
B. Create a procedures document
C. Conduct compliance testing
D. Terminate the audit
Correct Answer: A
The auditor should first evaluate existing policies and practices to identify problem areas and opportunities.

QUESTION 7
What is the name of the international standard that establishes a baseline level of confidence in the security functionality
of IT products by providing a set of requirements for evaluation?
A. Blue Book
B. ISO 26029
C. Common Criteria
D. The Wassenaar Agreement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is learning to write exploits in C++ and is using the exploit tool Backtrack. The engineer wants to compile
the newest C++ exploit and name it calc.exe. Which command would the engineer use to accomplish this?
A. g++ hackersExploit.cpp -o calc.exe
B. g++ hackersExploit.py -o calc.exe
C. g++ -i hackersExploit.pl -o calc.exe
D. g++ –compile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
As a Certified Ethical Hacker, you were contracted by a private firm to conduct an external security assessment through
penetration testing.
What document describes the specifics of the testing, the associated violations, and essentially protects both the
organization\\’s interest and your liabilities as a tester?
A. Terms of Engagement
B. Project Scope
C. Non-Disclosure Agreement
D. Service Level Agreement
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A server has been infected by a certain type of Trojan. The hacker intended to utilize it to send and host junk mails.
What type of Trojan did the hacker use?
A. Turtle Trojans
B. Ransomware Trojans
C. Botnet Trojan
D. Banking Trojans
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An NMAP scan of a server shows port 25 is open. What risk could this pose?
A. Open printer sharing
B. Web portal data leak
C. Clear text authentication
D. Active mail relay
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Identify the UDP port that Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses as its primary means of communication?
A. 123
B. 161
C. 69
D. 113
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
During the process of encryption and decryption, what keys are shared?
During the process of encryption and decryption, what keys are shared?
A. Private keys
B. User passwords
C. Public keys
D. Public and private keys
Correct Answer: C

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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 Exam Dumps Questions Answers

QUESTION 1
Which of the following services would restrict connectivity to cloud resources?
A. Security lists
B. Firewall
C. VPN
D. Intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A cloud systems administrator needs to log in to a remote Linux server that is hosted in a public cloud. Which of the
following protocols will the administrator MOST likely use?
A. HTTPS
B. RDP
C. Secure Shell
D. Virtual network computing
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
A business analysis team is reviewing a report to try to determine the costs for a cloud application. The report does not
allow separating costs by application.
Which of the following should the team use to BEST report on the costs of the specific cloud application?
A. Right-sizing
B. Content management
C. Optimization
D. Resource tagging
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a cloud service model that organizations use when their third-party ERP tool is provided as a complete service?
A. Public cloud
B. SaaS
C. Hybrid cloud
D. IaaS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which of the following are the main advantages of using ML/AI for data analytics in the cloud as opposed to on
premises? (Choose two.)
A. Cloud providers offer enhanced technical support.
B. Elasticity allows access to a large pool of compute resources.
C. The shared responsibility model offers greater security.
D. AI enables DevOps to build applications easier and faster.
E. A pay-as-you-go approach allows the company to save money.
F. ML enables DevOps to build applications easier and faster.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 6
A human resources department is considering a SaaS-based human resources portal and requires a risk analysis.
Which of the following are requirements to consider? (Choose two.)
A. Support
B. Threats
C. Chargebacks
D. Vulnerabilities
E. Maintenance
F. Gap analysis
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
A company wants to ensure its existing functionalities are not compromised by the addition of a new functionality.
Which of the following is the BEST testing technique?
A. Regression
B. Stress
C. Load
D. Quality
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following technologies would help a game company prepare its cloud infrastructure to support a global
distribution workload of a newly released online game? (Choose two.)
A. Auto-scaling
B. VDI
C. Data portability
D. CDN
E. Templates
F. Blockchain
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
A company deploys a data management capability that reduces RPO. Which of the following BEST describes the
capability needed?
A. Locality
B. Replication
C. Portability
D. Archiving
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A requirement states that an application must be restored within six hours. Which of the following should be included in
the SLA to satisfy this requirement?
A. MTTR
B. RPO
C. ROI
D. RTO
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
An organization plans to keep three of its cloud servers online for another nine months and a fourth server online for a
year. The current pricing is $200 per month per server. The cloud provider announced the sale price of $1,500 per year
per reserved instance.
Which of the following represents the cost savings by converting all four of the cloud servers to reserved instances?
A. $900
B. $1,800
C. $2,400
D. $3,600
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A company has defined a multicloud model.
Which of the following is the MOST important aspect to consider when defining the company\\’s needs?
A. Change management
B. Data sovereignty
C. Data portability
D. Data classification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A contract that defines the quality and performance metrics that are agreeable to both parties is called an:
A. SOP.
B. SOA.
C. SOW.
D. SLA.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported when using Cisco ACI to connect to an external Layer 3 network?
(Choose two.)
A. iBGP
B. VXLAN
C. IS-IS
D. RIPv2
E. eBGP
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010010.html

QUESTION 2
A RADIUS user resolves its role via the Cisco AV Pair. What object does the Cisco AV Pair resolve to?
A. tenant
B. security domain
C. primary Cisco APIC
D. managed object class
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/Security_config/b_Cisco_APIC_Security_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Security_Guide_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 3
An engineer is extending EPG connectivity to an external network. The external network houses the Layer 3 gateway
and other end hosts. Which ACI bridge domain configuration should be used?
A. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Hardware Proxy L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination
Flooding: Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Enabled
B. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Flood L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination Flooding:
Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Enabled
C. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Hardware Proxy L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination
Flooding: Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Disabled
D. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Flood L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi Destination Flooding:
Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Disabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A situation causes a fault to be raised on the APIC. The ACI administrator does not want that fault to be raised because
it is not directly relevant to the environment. Which action should the administrator take to prevent the fault from
appearing?
A. Under System -> Faults, right-click on the fault and select Acknowledge Fault so that acknowledged faults will
immediately disappear.
B. Create a stats threshold policy with both rising and falling thresholds defined so that the critical severity threshold
matches the squelched threshold.
C. Under System -> Faults, right-click on the fault and select Ignore Fault to create a fault severity assignment policy
that hides the fault.
D. Create a new global health score policy that ignores specific faults as identified by their unique fault code.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Bizfittraining 300-620 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit. A client reports that the ACI domain connectivity to the fiber channel storage is experiencing a B2B
credit oversubscription. The environment has a SYSLOG server for state collection messages. Which value should be
chosen to clear the critical fault?
A. 300
B. 410
C. 350
D. 510
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A data center administrator is upgrading an ACI fabric. There are 3 APIC controllers in the fabric and all the servers are dual-homed to pairs of leaf switches configured in VPC mode. How should the fabric be upgraded to minimize possible
traffic impact during the upgrade?
A. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
3.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
B. 1. Create two maintenance groups for APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
3.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
C. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
3.
Upgrade the first group of leaf switches.
4.
Upgrade the second group of leaf switches.
D. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of switches.
3.
Upgrade the second group of switches.
4.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Where is the COOP database located?
A. leaf
B. spine
C. APIC
D. endpoint
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html


QUESTION 8
Which type of profile needs to be created to deploy an access port policy group?
A. attachable entity
B. Pod
C. module
D. leaf interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_0110.html

QUESTION 9
An engineer is extending an EPG out of the ACI fabric using static path binding. Which statement about the endpoints is
true?
A. Endpoints must connect directly to the ACI leaf port.
B. External endpoints are in a different bridge domain than the endpoints in the fabric.
C. Endpoint learning encompasses the MAC address only.
D. External endpoints are in the same EPG as the directly attached endpoints.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What must be configured to redistribute externally learned OSPF routes within the ACI fabric?
A. Route Control Profile
B. BGP Route Reflector
C. BGP Inter-leak Route Map
D. PIM Sparse Mode
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010010.html

QUESTION 11
Which two actions extend a Layer 2 domain beyond the ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. extending the routed domain out of the ACI fabric
B. creating a single homed Layer 3 Out
C. creating an external physical network
D. extending the bridge domain out of the ACI fabric
E. extending the EPG out of the ACI fabric
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
In the context of VMM, which protocol between ACI leaf and compute hosts ensures that the policies are pushed to the
leaf switches for immediate and on demand resolution immediacy?
A. VXLAN
B. LLDP
C. ISIS
D. STP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco ACI Layer 4 to Layer 7 service insertion terms on the left to the correct descriptions on the
right.

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Network Appliance NS0-515 Exam Practice Test 1-13

QUESTION 1
In which two locations would you find the WWPNs for a Windows host? (Choose two.)
A. FC switch
B. host\\’s BIOS
C. Windows Device Manager
D. HBA vendor\\’s utility
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1532524 (7)


QUESTION 2
Which file contains the configuration for a multipath driver for FC on Linux systems?
A. /etc/kernel/mp.conf
B. /opt/multipath/multipath.cnf
C. /etc/multipath.conf
D. /etc/dm-multipath.conf
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP12404601


QUESTION 3
A customer intends to use an E2812 system without expansion shelves. The specification for their Windows host
requires that six E-Series data volumes be used. In this scenario, how should the system be configured?
A. one DDP with all the volumes
B. three DDPs with the volumes divided equally
C. one DDP for each volume
D. two DDPs with the volumes divided equally
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.netapp.com/us/media/tr-4725.pdf (37)

QUESTION 4
Your company has deployed an E2824 and has decided to change the host protocol from iSCSI to FC. You use the
storage array profile to review the installed SFPs. In this scenario, which set of supported data rates indicates that you
are using dual-purpose SFPs?
A. 25 Gbps, 10 Gbps
B. 32 Gbps, 16 Gbps, 8 Gbps, 4 Gbps
C. 16 Gbps, 10 Gbps, 8 Gbps, 4 Gbps
D. 16 Gbps, 8 Gbps, 4 Gbps
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2773527 (2)

QUESTION 5
You are setting up asynchronous mirroring between two E2860 systems.
In this scenario, which two prerequisites are required to complete the setup? (Choose two.)
A. Both the primary and secondary systems must be using the same subnets for mirroring connections.
B. Both the primary and secondary systems must have the same premium features licensed.
C. Both systems must be discovered by an Enterprise Management Window (EMW) or SANtricity Unified Manager.
D. The secondary system must have 2X the storage capacity of the primary system.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.

Bizfittraining NS0-515 exam questions-q6

Referring to the exhibit, which cable is an InfiniBand 4X connector?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.admin-sys.org/IMG/pdf/Hardware_Universe.pdf

QUESTION 7
A customer has an E5760 array with a 30-drive Dynamic Disk Pool (DDP) that uses 800 GB SSD drives. The customer
needs to expand the pool by one drive but has only a 1.6 TB SSD drive available. In this scenario, what happens when
the customer attempts to add the 1.6 TB drive to the existing pool?
A. The pool is expanded by 1.6 TB
B. The pool is expanded by 1.6 TiB
C. The pool is expanded by 800 GB
D. An error occurs, and the add fails
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You want to find detailed information about the devices that are connected to the Brocade switch. In this scenario, which
command would accomplish this goal?
A. portloginshow
B. zoneshow
C. nsshow
D. switchshow
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://jp.fujitsu.com/platform/server/primergy/products/note/other/FOS_CmdRef_v720.pdf (849)

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.

Bizfittraining NS0-515 exam questions-q9Referring to the exhibit, what would you select in the search list to see all of the host selections for NetApp E-Series
storage systems?
A. Storage OS
B. SANtricity
C. E-Series SAN Host
D. E-Series Controller Firmware
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andved=2ahUKEwirltOiyq
vnAhVhu3EKHcUrBjsQFjAAegQIAhABandurl=https%3A%2F%2Fcommunity.netapp.com%2Ffukiw75442%2Fattachme
nts% 2Ffukiw75442%2Fe-series-santricity-and-related-plug-ins-discussions%2F557%2F1%2FIMT_ESeries_SAN_Host_20180424_090321201.pdfandusg=AOvVaw1LNpV6vBUxZXiyfgdcnlSz

QUESTION 10
A customer needs to add an EF280 with FC into its existing Brocade fabric but the FC ports in the SANtricity System
Manager are showing the FC ports as down and the LED on the FC HIC is amber.
Which three tasks does the installer need to complete to solve this problem? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the ports are enabled on the switch
B. Verify that the cables are plugged into the switch
C. Verify that the server HBA has the boot BIOS enabled
D. Verify that the EF280s management port is up
E. Verify that the switch zone has the WWPNs for the EF280 and Server HBAs
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which three documents should be provided to the customer after the E-Series installation is complete? (Choose three.)
A. a document showing how much space is available for system expansion
B. a document showing the cabinet layout with cabling information and IP addresses being used
C. a document showing user IDs and passwords for all deployed devices
D. a document with IMT pages that show the supported host configuration and fabric switches in the solution
E. a document showing available power on the UPS with no equipment connected
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.

Bizfittraining NS0-515 exam questions-q12

A customer has a raised floor with a weight limit of 700 lb. per floor tile. The customer\\’s data cabinet weights 90 lb. and
covers a single floor tile. Referring to the exhibit, what is the maximum number of E2824 shelves possible to be
installed?
A. 22
B. 10
C. 6
D. 14
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your AutoSupport does not automatically send reports to NetApp\\’s ActiveIQ tool.
In this scenario, how do you access the data that would have been sent using the AutoSupport feature?
A. Use SANtricity Unified Manager to collect the support data remotely
B. Access the event log by using SANtricity System Manager
C. Use SANtricity System Manager to manually collect the support data
D. Ask NetApp Support to help you to access the data by using special support tools
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://mysupport.netapp.com/NOW/public/eseries/sam_archive1150/index.html

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McAfee Product Specialist MA0-103 Exam Practice Test 1-13

QUESTION 1
What rule prevents unauthorized executables and potential malware from running directly from Removable Storage
Devices?
A. Removable Storage Protection Rule
B. Removable Storage File Access Rule
C. Removable Storage Device Rule
D. Removable Storage File Block Rule
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is critical for troubleshooting system health?
A. System log
B. Administrator log
C. Agent log
D. Policy analyzer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
The DLP agent status dashboard monitor displays “no data found”. Which server task should be reviewed?
A. DLP incident tasks runner
B. DLP MA properties reporting task
C. DLP policy push task
D. DLP dashboard status task
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
What rule is used to monitor protected file transfer to network shares?
A. Network Communication Protection Rule
B. Network Share Protection Rule
C. File System Protection Rule
D. File System Discovery Rule
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
How can different modules within the DLP agent configuration be enabled?
A. Use the miscellaneous section
B. Use the advanced configuration section
C. Use the application modules section
D. Use the user interface service section
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An organization wants to prevent sensitive data from being uploaded to unauthorized websites. Which of the following
types of protection rule can the DLP Endpoint administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. File System Protection Rule
B. Cloud Protection Rule
C. Application Protection Rule
D. Web Post Protection Rule
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a potential indicator of an issue with the DLP Endpoint client?
A. Multiple FCAGTE processes are present in the Task Manager
B. Multiple FCAG processes are present in the Task Manager
C. FCAGSD process is present in the Task Manager
D. FCAGTE is running as a user instead of the System account in the Task Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is NOT a DLPe incident task?
A. Mail notification task
B. Purge task
C. Set reviewer task
D. Purge client task
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
An organization is concerned that employees are using their personal web based email accounts to conduct work on
internal documents after hours. Which of the following can the DLP Endpoint Administrator configure to mitigate this
risk?
A. Web Post Protection Rule
B. Email Protection Rule
C. Cloud Protection Rule
D. File System Protection Rule
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
How can DLP be used to prohibit users from sending confidential files to partners?
A. Create a partner list definition and add to applicable protection rules
B. Create a partner list and apply to device control C, Use protection rules to stop copying of confidential files
C. Prevent confidential files from being used
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What must be deployed to all target computers before an endpoint policy can be distributed?
A. A Policy Analyzer
B. A DLP global policy
C. The McAfee DLPe extension
D. A supported version of McAfee Agent
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Applications in which of the following groups will NOT have their Disk Activity scanned for sensitive data?
A. Editor
B. Archiver
C. Installer
D. Trusted
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which of the following protects the DLP Endpoint client from malicious interferences?
A. Agent Watchdogs Only
B. VirusScan Enterprise
C. Host Intrusion Prevention System
D. Data Access Protection module and Agent Watchdogs
Correct Answer: D

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23.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging. You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync. What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
070-347 exam Answer: D
24.DRAG DROP
Your company uses Office 365.You are planning a user-driven deployment of Office 365 ProPlus. You need to provide users with the minimum requirements for running Office 365 ProPlus. Which requirements should you provide? To answer, drag the appropriate requirements to the correct targets. Each requirement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company is deploying Office 365 ProPlus.
The company has the following deployment requirements:
– Office applications must be installed from a local network location by using a self-service model.
– Office application updates must not be deployed until they have been tested for compatibility.
– The installation of Office applications and updates must occur without user interaction.
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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70-347 dumps Answer:
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A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Answer: A
27.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data. What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.

B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
070-347 pdf Answer: C
28.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently subscribed to Office 365 ProPlus. When performing a test deployment, you receive the following error message: “Windows cannot find ‘C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office 15 \clientX64\integratedOffice.exe’.Make sure you typed the name correctly, and then try again.” You need to successfully complete the test deployment. Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Manually remove the registry subkeys associated with Office 2013, and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
B. completely uninstall existing versions of Office 2013 and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
C. Download the Office 365 ProPlus package to a file share, and then deploy Office 365 ProPlus by using Group Policy.
D. Automate the installation of Office 365 ProPlus applications by using Microsoft System Center
Configuration Manager.
Answer: A, D
29.Which storage method will make data most accessible?
A. Optical disk
B. Magnetic Disk
C. Jukebox
D. Tape
070-347 vce Correct Answer: B
30.Which task is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data center object?
A. Determining which device ports have the highest rates of errors
B. Viewing a list of file systems that are nearly full
C. Monitoring the status of processes on the host
D. Listing the number of disks in all storage arrays
Correct Answer: B
31.Which event is known as a head crash?
A. Two R/W heads have touched each other
B. A read head and a write head have touched each other
C. A R/W head has touched the disk data area
D. Two adjacent disk platters have touched each other
E. SAN
070-347 exam Correct Answer: C
32.What is a disadvantage of array based remote replication?
A. Uses host CPU resources
B. Cannot manage log shipping
C. Limited to specific databases
D. Limited to specific operating systems
Correct Answer: B
33.What is a valid member of a zone in a SAN?
A. The IP address of a host
B. A Domain ID
C. The serial number of a storage array
D. A HBA WWPN
70-347 dumps Correct Answer: D
34.What failure does RAID technology guard against?
A. Host bus Adapter failures
B. Host failures
C. Switch Failure
D. Disk Failure

Correct Answer: D
35.What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination device?
A. Faster restore time
B. Random access
C. RAID Protection
D. Portability
070-347 pdf Correct Answer: D
36.Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit?
1. Read data is sent to the host
2. Host sends read request to storage system
3. Cache is searched, and data is found
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 3, 1, 2
C. 1, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 3
Correct Answer: A

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Updated: Jun 02, 2017
Q&As: 503
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QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

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In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware
failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What
should you do?

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A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the
forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.

What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is
named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by
using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU)
named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012
R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two options should a Citrix Administrator configure to stop the First-Time wizard from automatically popping up?
(Choose two.)
A. Host Name is NOT configured on the appliance.
B. The Default Admin Password has NOT been changed.
C. Licenses are NOT present on the appliance.
D. The appliance is configured with the default IP address (192.168.100.1)
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX230694

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is performing a disaster recovery test and decided to fail over the Citrix ADC high
availability (HA) pair appliances. The administrator noticed that the failover is NOT working as expected in item text, and
the Secondary Citrix ADC is NOT taking over as Primary. The administrator suspects that networking issues may be
causing the failure.
What could be the cause of this issue with the Citrix ADCs?
A. HA hertbeats are only seen on some enabled interfaces of the Secondary Node.
B. HA monitoring is enabled on an interface of the Secondary Node that shows as ENABLED, DOWN.
C. The Independent network configuration (INC) mode is enabled on the Primary Node.
D. HA monitoring is enabled on a disabled inteface of the Primary Node.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX201771

QUESTION 3
What two options are limitations of a typical Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) setup? (Choose two.)
A. An administrator CANNOT define a backup for a backup Vserver in an active standby GSLB setup for a given GSLB
domain
B. Apply spillover policies on a subset of GSLB services and the user CANNOT have a backup for a subset of GSLB
services.
C. Restrict the selection of a GSLB service from a subset of GSLB services bound to a GSLB virtual server for the given
domain.
D. Any given GSLB Vserver can load-balance only one FQDN.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which Citrix ADC hardware or software platform offers a Multi-Tenant solution?
A. VPX
B. MPX
C. CPX
D. SDX
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX226732

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages a Citrix Gateway with a Standard Platform License, with remote employees in
the environment. The administrator wants to increase employee access by 300 users through the Citrix Gateway, using
VPN access.
Which license should the administrator recommend purchasing for this environment?
A. Citrix ADC Burst Packs License
B. Citrix ADC Upgrade License
C. Citrix Gateway Universal License
D. Citrix Gateway Express License
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which feature can a Citrix Administrator use to create a consistent set of front-end SSL parameters across multiple SSL
virtual servers?
A. SSL Profile
B. SSL Bridge
C. SSL Offload
D. SSL Policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has deployed machines using Machine Creation Services (MCS). A user logs on to a
desktop from a random/non-persistent pool of Windows 10 desktops. During the session, the user installs Microsoft
Office 2016.
To which disk is the Microsoft Office installation data written during the session?
A. Differencing
B. Identity
C. Temporary
D. Personal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
After creating a new machine catalog using the Machine Creation Services (MCS) wizard in Citrix Studio, a Citrix
Administrator determines that Windows activation fails for all new machines in that catalog. Which two conditions can
cause this to happen? (Choose two.)
A. The base image rearm count has been exceeded.
B. The Microsoft License Server is unreachable.
C. The version of Windows installed uses Multiple Activation Key (MAK) licensing.
D. The version of Windows installed is Windows Server 2012 R2.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has configured a Citrix ADC active-passive high availability (HA) pair. When the HA pair
fails over, customers are unable to access the hosted websites. After some troubleshooting, the administrator found that
the upstream router was NOT updating its ARP table.
What can the administrator configure to resolve this issue?
A. Virtual MAC
B. Independent Network Configuration (INC) mode
C. Route Monitor
D. HA monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three methods can a Citrix Administrator choose from when creating a Featured App Group for a set of
applications? (Choose three.)
A. Application names
B. Installed locally
C. Keyword
D. Application category
E. Delivery Group
Correct Answer: ACD
You can create product featured app groups for your end users that are related to or fit in a specific category. For
example, you can create a Sales Department featured app group containing applications that are used by that
department. You can define featured apps in the StoreFront administration console by using application names or by
using keywords or application categories that were defined in the Studio console.
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/storefront/current-release/manage-citrix-receiver-for-web-site/manage-appgroups.html

QUESTION 11
Which scenario will cause automatic high availability (HA) synchronization to fail?
A. Manually forced synchronization
B. A configuration change to the primary Citrix ADC
C. Different build versions
D. A force failover
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX109013

QUESTION 12
Which component can optionally be hosted in Citrix Cloud or in a customer-controlled resource location, when using the
Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service?
A. Citrix License Server
B. Citrix Gateway
C. Site database
D. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is working on a published application. The network connection remains active for 240
seconds but is interrupted and applications become unusable. The session then prompts for authentication. After the
administrator successfully authenticates, the session is reconnected.
Which policy makes this possible?
A. Load Management
B. Auto Client Reconnect
C. Session Reliability
D. ICA Keep Alive
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-virtual-apps-desktops/policies/reference/ica-policy-settings/sessionreliability-policy-settings.html

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Citrix 1Y0-402 Free Practice Questions

1Y0-402 Free Practice Questions

I strongly suggest you validate your understanding with practice questions.

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment for a financial services
company. During the project kickoff meeting, the organization states the following business priorities:
“Overall, we want a robust solution which ensures that users can access their resources at any time, even if our primary
datacenter experiences an outage. Our employees will need to access their resources from both inside and outside our
corporate network, but we need to ensure that we enable this in a secure manner and protect our sensitive data.”
Which four design decisions align with the organization\\’s stated business drivers? (Choose four.)
A. Redundancy should be implemented for all infrastructure components.
B. Server OS Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines should be used to increase user density per machine.
C. Optimal Gateway Routing should be configured on StoreFront.
D. NetScaler will be required in the environment.
E. A multi-Site architecture and disaster recovery plan will be required.
F. Single image management should be included in the design.
G. SmartAccess or SmartControl features should be considered for this environment.
Correct Answer: BCDG

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The customer has a number
of small field sales offices, each connected to the main datacenter located in the headquarters building that has a 1.5
Mbps MPLS WAN link. Each field sales office has between 5 and 10 concurrent users connecting to the Citrix
environment hosted in the main datacenter. The customer would like to ensure that print jobs are compressed as much
as possible to reduce any poor user experience in the field offices.
Click the Exhibit button to view additional details about the environment.

Bizfittraining 1Y0-402 exam questions-q2

What should the architect recommend for mapping the blue printer in the Exhibit?
A. Citrix Client Printer with OEM driver
B. Citrix Universal Print Server
C. Microsoft Group Policy Preference printer mapping
D. Citrix Client Printer with Universal print driver
E. Citrix Session Printer policy
Correct Answer: B
 

QUESTION 3
Scenario: While assessing the User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using
corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to
Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices which have Receiver Desktop Lock installed.
Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use
Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. The IT team is planning to automate a process to update all the devices with the
latest version of Citrix Receiver and to automate another process for automatic installation of Citrix Receiver without
incurring extra costs and maintenance.
During the initial testing of the Citrix Receiver Auto-Update feature, the architect observed that the Citrix Receiver AutoUpdate feature does NOT work on some of the machines.
Which two reasons could be causing this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Receiver Auto-Update is disabled on machines where Receiver Desktop Lock is installed.
B. The Citrix receiver Auto-Update feature needs to be configured before Receiver Desktop Lock is configured.
C. The user does NOT have local administrative permission on the endpoint device.
D. The local Advanced Preferences within Citrix Receiver were incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new, 2,000-user XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The environment will
use Windows Server 2016 for all Site infrastructure components (Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, Citrix
Director). Machine Creation Services (MCS) will be used to provision Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
The environment will include two primary use cases:
Windows Server 2016 VDA machines providing hosted apps Windows 10 VDA machines providing random, nonpersistent VDI
The IT team has NOT yet purchased the hardware that will be used for the environment and will build the Hardware
Layer components for the environment based
on the architect\\’s recommendations.
How should the architect design the hypervisor resource pools based on Citrix leading practice?
A. Windows Server 2016 machines should be placed in one resource pool, and all Windows 10 machines should be
placed in a second resource pool.
B. The infrastructure servers and all VDA machines should be located in one resource pool.
C. Windows Server 2016 VDA machines should be placed in one resource pool, Windows 10 machines should be
placed in a second resource pool, and the infrastructure servers should be placed in a third resource pool.
D. The infrastructure servers should be placed in one resource poo, and the VDA machines should be placed in a
second resource pool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The architect has determined the applications and characteristics listed in the Exhibit during the application
assessment.
Click the Exhibit button to view the list of applications and characteristics.

Bizfittraining 1Y0-402 exam questions-q5

To which application category does Application1 belong, based on the information provided in the Exhibit?
A. Management Apps
B. Common Apps
C. User Apps
D. Departmental Apps
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: While assessing the User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using
corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running
Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to
Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices.
Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use
Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. The IT team is planning to automate a process to update all the devices with the
latest version of Citrix Receiver and to automate another process for automatic installation of Citrix Receiver without
incurring extra costs and maintenance.
What should the architect recommend to upgrade Citrix Receivers for internal Windows endpoints?
A. The use of deployment tools for internal endpoints.
B. The deployment of Enterprise software.
C. Configure Receiver auto-updates through Citrix Cloud.
D. Edit the Web.config file and set upgradeAtLogin to True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The architect has determined the user groups and FlexCast model listed in the Exhibit during the high-level design.
Click the Exhibit button to view the user group and FlexCast model details.

Bizfittraining 1Y0-402 exam questions-q7

Which graphics protocol should the architect select for the highlighted group in the Exhibit?
A. Thinwire (Legacy)
B. Framehawk
C. Thinwire+
D. H.264
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a single-Site XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Through earlier design
discussions, the architect has determined the environment details listed in the Exhibit.

Bizfittraining 1Y0-402 exam questions-q8

What should the architect change in the current environment to align with Citrix leading practices?
A. A Delivery Controller should be removed from the Site.
B. The Delivery Controller and StoreFront roles should NOT be co-located on the same server.
C. The existing Delivery Controllers should be allocated with an additional 2 GB of RAM each.
D. A Delivery Controller should be added to the Site.
E. The existing Delivery Controllers should be allocated with an additional CPU each.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is performing a XenApp and XenDesktop design. During a discussion with the server
hardware team, two potential network configurations are proposed for the XenServer hosts.
Click the Exhibit button to view the network configurations.

Bizfittraining 1Y0-402 exam questions-q9

Which statement will support a decision to use Network Configuration 2?
A. It will ensure that virtual machine workloads do NOT interfere with each other.
B. It will provide greater security for all traffic types.
C. It will achieve a higher level of redundancy for the different traffic types.
D. It will reserve more bandwidth for virtual machine traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is investigating a recent change that is impacting system performance of the Provisioning
Services farm. However, no actions have been recorded in the Audit Trail.
Which two processes are preventing Provisioning Services auditing from recording the actions? (Choose two.)
A. The change was completed through the SCCM integration.
B. A task was performed using Provisioning Services PowerShell interface.
C. A task was performed using Management Command Line Interface (MCLI).
D. The Provisioning Services database was unavailable.
E. Auditing is disabled by default.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenDesktop in an environment. The XenDesktop design requires
enabling TLS encryption between components to ensure Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance. A PCI audit
determines that TLS must be used for communication with the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
Which three tasks should the architect perform to enable TLS on VDA machines? (Choose three.)
A. Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the VDA machine image to enable TLS
B. Enable TLS for Delivery Groups on the Delivery Controller
C. Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the Delivery Controllers.
D. Enable TLS for the XenDesktop Site
E. Deploy certificates to the Delivery Controller
F. Deploy certificates to the VDA machines
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Architect designed an active/passive XenApp and XenDesktop environment for a customer, where the
passive Site serves as the disaster recovery Site for all users.
The architect configured a DFS root for user profiles and redirected folders and configured DFS-R to replicate the user
profiles and data to a fileserver in the disaster recovery Site.
During failover testing, no issues were reported; however, today the customer has an unexpected outage in StoreFront
on the active Site which causes sessions to start flowing to the passive Site.
The customer reports that several users are experiencing issues logging on and has also stated that Citrix Director is
NOT showing any issues for the passive Site.
What is likely causing this issue?
A. DFS-R is NOT supported for use with Citrix Profile Management.
B. StoreFront in the passive Site is aggregating Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in the primary Site.
C. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in the passive Site are NOT registered.
D. User sessions in the primary datacenter are still active.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The design has a primary zone and three satellite zones. Each satellite zone has a number of Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines that belong
to a single Delivery Group spanning across all three satellite zones.
Click the Exhibit button for more details about the configuration.

Bizfittraining 1Y0-402 exam questions-q13

How should the architect ensure that when users from Group SFO launch Microsoft PowerPoint, they are able to work
with the least amount of latency on documents in the “User data” folder?
A. Publish Microsoft PowerPoint to only run from Zone-SFO
B. Set the application home zone to Zone-MIA
C. Create a Citrix policy to define bandwidth limitations for sessions to Zone-SFO
D. Edit the zone properties to only allow Microsoft PowerPoint to launch in Zone-MIA
Correct Answer: D

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The 1Y0-402 exam is a 70-question exam written in English.

https://training.citrix.com/resources/Exam%20Prep%20Guides/402/1Y0-402_Exam_Preparation_Guide_v07.pdf

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Microsoft MD-100 Windows 10 Practice Tests 2020 New

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains a user named [email protected]
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You join Computer1 to Azure AD. You enable Remote Desktop on Computer1.
[email protected] attempts to connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop and receives the following error
message: “The logon attempt failed.”
You need to ensure that the user can connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop.
What should you do first?
A. In Azure AD, assign [email protected] the Cloud device administrator role.
B. From the local Group Policy, modify the Allow log on through Remote Desktop Services user right.
C. In Azure AD, assign [email protected] the Security administrator role.
D. On Computer1, create a local user and add the new user to the Remote Desktop Users group.
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A user named User2 has a computer named Computer2 that runs Windows 10. User2 joins Computer2 to contoso.com
by using [email protected]
Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. Folder1 is in drive C and is shared as Share1. Share1 has the permission
shown in the following table.
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q2
A user named User2 has a computer named Computer2 that runs Windows 10. User2 joins Computer2 to contoso.com
by using [email protected]
User2 attempts to access Share1 and receives the following error message: “The username or password is incorrect.”
You need to ensure that User2 can connect to Share1.
Solution: You create a local user account on Computer1 and instruct User2 to use the local account to connect to
Share1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains computers that run Windows 10.
You need to provide a user with the ability to remotely create and modify shares on the computers. The solution must
use the principle of least privilege.
To which group should you add the user?
A. Power Users
B. Remote Management Users
C. Administrators
D. Network Configuration Operators
Correct Answer: C
 
QUESTION 4
You have a computer named Computer5 that runs Windows 10 that is used to share documents in a workgroup.
You create three users named User-a, User-b, User-c. The users plan to access Computer5 from the network only.
You have a folder named Data. The Advanced Security Settings for the Data folder are shown in the Security exhibit.
(Click the Security Exhibit tab).
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q11-2
You share the Data folder. The permission for User-a are shown in the User-a exhibit (Click the User-a tab.)
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q4-2
The permissions for user-b are shown in the User-b exhibit. (Click the User-b tab.)
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q4-3
The permissions for user-c are shown in the User-c exhibit. (Click the User-c tab.)
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q4-4
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statements is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Reach correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q4-5
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q4-6
QUESTION 5
You enable Windows PowerShell remoting on a computer that runs Windows 10.
You need to limit which PowerShell cmdlets can be used in a remote session.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q5
Correct Answer:
 
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q5-2
 
QUESTION 6
You have a computer named Computer 1 that runs Windows 10.
You turn on System Protection and create a restore point named Point1.
You perform the following changes:
Add four files named File1.txt, File2.dll, File3.sys, and File4.exe to the desktop.
Run a configuration script that adds the following four registry keys:
-Key1 to HKEY_CURRENT_USER
-Key2 to HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
-Key3 to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM
-Key4 to HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG You restore Point1. Which files and registry keys are removed? To answer,
select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q6
 
 
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q6-2
 
QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is joined to an Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. User1 joins Computer1 to contoso.com by using
[email protected]
Computer1 contains a folder named Folder1. Folder1 is in drive C and is shared as Share1. Share1 has the permission
shown in the following table.
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q7
A user named User2 has a computer named Computer2 that runs Windows 10. User2 joins Computer2 to contoso.com
by using [email protected]
User2 attempts to access Share1 and receives the following error message: “The username or password is incorrect.”
You need to ensure that User2 can connect to Share1.
Solution: In Azure AD, you create a group named Group1 that contains User1 and User2. You grant Group1 Change
access to Share1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windowsserver-2008-R2-and-2008/cc754178(v%3dws.10)
 
QUESTION 8
You have 100 computers that run Windows 10. You have no servers. All the computers are joined to Microsoft Azure
Active Directory (Azure AD).
The computers have different update settings, and some computers are configured for manual updates.
You need to configure Windows Update. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The configuration must be managed from a central location.
Internet traffic must be minimized.
Costs must be minimized.
How should you configure Windows Update? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q8
Correct Answer:
 
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q8-2
 
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant.
Your company purchases a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to migrate the Documents folder of users to Microsoft OneDrive for Business.
What should you configure?
A. One Drive Group Policy settings
B. roaming user profiles
C. Enterprise State Roaming
D. Folder Redirection Group Policy settings
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/redirect-known-folders?redirectSourcePath=%252fenus%252farticle%252fredirect-windows-known-folders-to-onedrive-e1b3963c-7c6c-4694-9f2f-fb8005d9ef12
 
QUESTION 10
Your company has a wireless access point that uses WPA2-Enterprise. You need to configure a computer to connect to
the wireless access point. What should you do first?
A. Create a provisioning package in Windows Configuration Designer.
B. Request a passphrase.
C. Request and install a certificate.
D. Create a Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) package.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/17137/windows-setting-up-wireless-network
 
QUESTION 11
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented on the graphic.
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q11.png
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q11-2
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q11-3
QUESTION 12
You have 20 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup.
You need to create a local user named Admin1 on all the computers. Admin1 must be a member of the Remote
Management Users group.
What should you do?
A. From Windows Configuration Designer, create a provisioning package, and then run the provisioning package on
each computer.
B. Create a script that runs the New-ADUser cmdlet and the Set-AdGroup cmdlet.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that contains the Local User Group Policy preference.
D. Create a script that runs the New-MsolUser cmdlet and the Add-ADComputerServiceAccount cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
 
QUESTION 13
You have a file named Reg1.reg that contains the following content.
Pass4itsure Microsoft md-100 exam questions q13
 
What is the effect of importing the file?
A. A key named command will be renamed as notepad.exe.
B. In a key named Notepad, the command value will be set to @=”notepad.exe”.
C. In a key named command, the default value will be set to notepad.exe.
Correct Answer: B

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