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Latest Cisco 300-710 exam questions

Which command must be run to generate troubleshooting files on an FTD?
A. system support view-files
B. sudo sf_troubleshoot.pl
C. system generate-troubleshoot all
D. show tech-support
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-defense-center/117663-technoteSourceFire-00.html

What is the disadvantage of setting up a site-to-site VPN in a clustered-units environment?
A. VPN connections can be re-established only if the failed master unit recovers.
B. Smart License is required to maintain VPN connections simultaneously across all cluster units.
C. VPN connections must be re-established when a new master unit is elected.
D. Only established VPN connections are maintained when a new master unit is elected.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/fxos/clustering/ftd-clustersolution.html#concept_g32_yml_y2b

Which report template field format is available in Cisco FMC?
A. box lever chart
B. arrow chart
C. bar chart
D. benchmark chart
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Working_with_Reports.html

Which object type supports object overrides?
A. time range
B. security group tag
C. network object
D. DNS server group
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reusable_Objects.html#concept_8BFE8B9A83D742D9B647A74F7AD50053


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With Cisco Firepower Threat Defense software, which interface mode must be configured to passively receive traffic
that passes through the appliance?
A. inline set
B. passive
C. routed
D. inline tap
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/interface_overview_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

Which Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints policy is used only for monitoring endpoint actively?
A. Windows domain controller
B. audit
C. triage
D. protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/amp-endpoints/214933-amp-for-endpoints-deploymentmethodology.html

What is a functionality of port objects in Cisco FMC?
A. to mix transport protocols when setting both source and destination port conditions in a rule
B. to represent protocols other than TCP, UDP, and ICMP
C. to represent all protocols in the same way
D. to add any protocol other than TCP or UDP for source port conditions in access control rules.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/reusable_objects.html

Which command-line mode is supported from the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?
A. privileged
B. user
C. configuration
D. admin
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev66/command_line_reference.pdf

Which Cisco Firepower feature is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time?
A. rate-limiting
B. suspending
C. correlation
D. thresholding
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-Global-Threshold.html

What is a result of enabling Cisco FTD clustering?
A. For the dynamic routing feature, if the master unit fails, the newly elected master unit maintains all existing
B. Integrated Routing and Bridging is supported on the master unit.
C. Site-to-site VPN functionality is limited to the master unit, and all VPN connections are dropped if the master unit
D. All Firepower appliances can support Cisco FTD clustering.
Correct Answer: C

What is a valid Cisco AMP file disposition?
A. non-malicious
B. malware
C. known-good
D. pristine
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reference_a_wrapper_Chapter_topic_here.html

After deploying a network-monitoring tool to manage and monitor networking devices in your organization, you realize
that you need to manually upload an MIB for the Cisco FMC. In which folder should you upload the MIB file?
A. /etc/sf/DCMIB.ALERT
D. system/etc/DCEALERT.MIB
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/Intrusion-External-Responses.pdf

On the advanced tab under inline set properties, which allows interfaces to emulate a passive interface?
A. transparent inline mode
B. TAP mode
C. strict TCP enforcement
D. propagate link state
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev64/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html

What is the maximum bit size that Cisco FMC supports for HTTPS certificates?
A. 1024
B. 8192
C. 4096
D. 2048
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/610/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev61/system_configuration.html

Which object type supports object overrides?
A. time range
B. security group tag
C. network object
D. DNS server group
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Reusable_Objects.html#concept_8BFE8B9A83D742D9B647A74F7AD50053

Which action should be taken after editing an object that is used inside an access control policy?
A. Delete the existing object in use.
B. Refresh the Cisco FMC GUI for the access control policy.
C. Redeploy the updated configuration.
D. Create another rule using a different object name.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/630/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev63/reusable_objects.html

Which protocol establishes network redundancy in a switched Firepower device deployment?
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/firepower_threat_defense_high_availability.html

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Learning Resources

Instructor Led Training

  • Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies (DCICT)
  • Exam Code: 200-155
  • Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
  • Q&As: 101

Related Exams

  • 640-911 Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
  • 640-916 Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
  • 200-150 Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
  • 200-155 Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

Related Certifications

  • Wireless LAN
  • Wireless BYOD Specialist
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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (April 2018) 1-35

Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D

Which two options are control plan protocols? (Choose two)
Correct Answer: AD

What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: DE

A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A

What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

What is the purpose of Fibre Channel over Ethernet?
A. FCoE maps native Fibre Channel onto Layer 2 Ethernet, Converging IP and storage networks.
B. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel traffic inside GRE tunnels.
C. Data Center Bridging uses FCoE to transport IP traffic over native Fiber Channel.
D. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel inside IP packets.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A

Which two components are part of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose two)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. finite state machine
D. data management engine
E. chassis management controller
Correct Answer: AE

Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BD

Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Correct Answer: C

Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2232TM
B. 2148T
C. 22497P
D. 2232PP
E. 2248T
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: D

A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch. One design retirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. Port-Channels
B. Unified Ports
C. LAN Pin Groups
D. System QoS Policy
Correct Answer: C

Which statement about EPGs is true?
A. EPGs can both provide and consume a contract.
B. EPGs can provide, but cannot consume, a contract
C. EPGs cm consume, but cannot provide, a contract
D. EPGs neither provide or consume contracts
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A

A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenderssupport 10 Gb/s server connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

Which two chassis discovery policy settings allow far a UCS chassis to be connected to a pair of Fabric Interconnect using only two physical connections’ (Choose two)
A. 4-link
B. 2-link
C. 8-link
D. 1-link
E. Platform-max
200-155 vce Correct Answer: BD

Refer to the exhibit below:
 200-155 dumps
The figure shows CLI interface forVSAN configuration of Cisco MDS 9000 switch. Which command is required to enter the configuration prompt for VSAN as shown in figure?
A. config t
B. vsan name
C. vsan
D. vsan database
Correct Answer: D

Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B

Which of the statements about Cisco WAAS is true?
A. All of these
B. It consists of WAE that optimizes UDP traffic.
C. It consists of WAE that optimizes ICMP traffic.
D. It consists of WAEs that optimize TCP traffic.
Correct Answer: D

Drag the WAAS component feature on the left to the corresponding function on the right.
Select and Place:
 200-155 dumps
200-155 dumps Correct Answer:
 200-155 dumps

In an ACf Fabric, which two statements about contexts are true? (Choose two.)
A. A VRF defines a Layer 3 address domain
B. A tenant can contain multiple VRFs
C. In traditional networking, a VRF is equivalent to a VDC
D. A tenant can contain only a single VRF.
E. A VRF defines a Layer 2 address domain.
Correct Answer: AB

Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C

Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller
200-155 vce Correct Answer: ACE

What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. stare-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
200-155 exam Correct Answer: AD

What are the two default user roles in Cisco UCS Manager RBAC? (Choose two.)
A. Operations
B. AAA Administrator
C. Root
D. Local
E. Sudo
Correct Answer: AB

Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A

Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

Which statement about NPIV is true?
A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port
B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
C. NPIV requires a “write erase” and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.
D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
Correct Answer: A

Which device connects Cisco UCS B-Series servers to Cisco Fabric Switches?
A. Fabric Extender
B. a host bus adapter
C. Fabric interconnects
D. a fabric switch
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B

Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )
A. VZ Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. VI Port
E. VS Port
200-155 vce Correct Answer: BC

What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

A customer has two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects in a cluster connected to one Cisco UCS 5108 Chassis via.
?2 ports from the primary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module A
?2 parts from secondary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module B
The customer wants to ensure maximum redundancy and bandwidth. Within Cisco UCS Manager, how should the chassis discovery policy grouping be configured before the new chassis is discovered?
A. 4-link, none
B. 2-link, none
C. 2-link, port channel
D. 4-link, port channel
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B

How many VRFs are present in Cisco Nexus OS by default?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)

Which three options describe how SNMPv3 traps can be securely configured to be sent by IOS? (Choose three.)
A. An SNMPv3 group is defined to configure the read and write views of the group.
B. An SNMPv3 user is assigned to SNMPv3 group and defines the encryption and authentication credentials.
C. An SNMPv3 host is configured to define where the SNMPv3 traps will be sent.
D. An SNMPv3 host is used to configure the encryption and authentication credentials for SNMPv3 traps.
E. An SNMPv3 view is defined to configure the address of where the traps will be sent.
F. An SNMPv3 group is used to configure the OIDs that will be reported.
300-206 exam Correct Answer: ABC
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0 interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1
mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1
mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1
one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
Correct Answer: A

What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?
A. Trace
B. Debug
C. Informational
D. Critical
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
Which command sets the source IP address of the NetFlow exports of a device?
A. ip source flow-export
B. ip source netflow-export
C. ip flow-export source
D. ip netflow-export source
Correct Answer: C
Which two SNMPv3 features ensure that SNMP packets have been sent securely?” Choose two.
A. host authorization
B. authentication
C. encryption
D. compression
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: BC
Which three logging methods are supported by Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. console logging
B. TACACS+ logging
C. terminal logging
D. syslog logging
E. ACL logging
F. RADIUS logging
Correct Answer: ACD
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
300-206 vce Correct Answer: BDE
Which two parameters must be configured before you enable SCP on a router? (Choose two.)
B. authorization
Correct Answer: AB
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase

B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: C
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: B
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
Correct Answer: C
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
Correct Answer: B
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Correct Answer: C
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
300-206 exam Correct Answer: B
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Correct Answer: A
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: D
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
Correct Answer: B
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Correct Answer: D
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?
A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation
300-206 vce Correct Answer: B
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
Correct Answer: D
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.

300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
Correct Answer: B
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.
Correct Answer: C
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
A. Earned value management.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: D
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Organizational process updates
B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements
300-206 vce Correct Answer: B
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
Correct Answer: C
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 24.
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Correct Answer: C
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables,
B. Final products or services,
C. Document updates,
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: A
An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Activity lists.
C. A work breakdown structure.
D. A scope statement.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A
External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:
A. Customers.
B. Business partners.
C. Sellers.
D. Functional managers.
Correct Answer: B
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
300-206 vce Correct Answer: B
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
Correct Answer: B
Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management
C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit

B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
Correct Answer: C
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail
depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
Correct Answer: D
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Performance reporting.
C. Bidder conferences.
D. Reserve analysis.
Correct Answer: B
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting
Correct Answer: C
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Correct Answer: C
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: A
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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)

Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration

C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and  analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Correct Answer: D
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter

B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: A
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Correct Answer: A
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log

Correct Answer: A
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Correct Answer: D
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Correct Answer: A
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: B
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
Correct Answer: B
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: B
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams

300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Correct Answer: A
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: C
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)

Question No : 9 How is a password set on the BlackBerry Device?
A. Options -> Security-> Password -> Device Password
B. Settings-> Security-> Security and Privacy-> Device Password
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Options -> Device Password
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Settings -> Device Password
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
Question No : 10 Which of the following is an essential aid to investigate a problem experienced on a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) smartphone when being reported to BlackBerry?
A. Playbook
B. BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) server name
C. The location of the device
D. The time of occurrence and the device logs
Answer: D
Question No : 11 When a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device is connected to a computer, the internal storage devices such as the inserted micro SD card are not mounted and mapped to drive letters. What is the most likely cause and how can it be corrected?
A. The host computer has used the drive letters reserved for BlackBerry mapped drives. These drives will need to be moved to allow the BlackBerry drive letters to be assigned to the BB10.
B. The BlackBerry Device Manager is not installed on the host computer and the BB10 will not have the capability to mount the internal storage devices as drive letters. Install the BlackBerry Device Driver and retry the connection.
C. The BlackBerry Mapped Network Device driver is not loaded, the BlackBerry Device Manager requires this driver to map the internal BB10 storage devices to drive letters. Install the required driver from Windows Update and try again.
D. The Wi-Fi radio has been turned off, and this prevents the BB10 from accepting the mapped drive request from the BlackBerry Device Manager. Turn on the Wi-Fi radio and retry the connection.
300-360 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No : 12  What happens when a user activates a Playbook in addition to a smartphone on the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. The smartphone stops communication with the server
B. The smartphone has a popup to choose the device to continue communication with the BDS.
C. Both the Playbook and the smartphone will continue to work since the BDS supports multiple devices per user.
D. The devices with the most memory free will stay enabled, and the other devices are disabled from the BDS automatically.
Answer: C
The data de-duplication system checks each block of data to determine whether it is _____________with a block that has already been received. The ______________ blocks are replaced with pointers to their equivalent blocks that are already in storage.
A. combined,combined
B. scaled, scaled
C. redundant,redundant
D. load balanced, load balanced
300-360 pdf 
Answer: C
The cloud architecture that results from the application of the __________________ pattern relies on the _____________mechanism to synchronize cloud storage devices.
A. Synchronized Operating State. resource cluster
B. Redundant Storage, resource replication
C. Zero Downtime, hypervisor
D. Service Load Balancing, failover system
Answer: B
The _____________pattern is applied to dynamically allocate and reclaim physical uplinks, whenever _____________become bottlenecks.
A. Elastic Resource Capacity, virtual firewalls
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, failed network ports
C. Elastic Resource Capacity, network cards
D. Elastic Network Capacity, virtual switches
300-360 vce Answer: D
In a cloud architecture resulting from the application of the Cloud Bursting compound pattern, the _________________ mechanism is used to maintain synchronizing between a cloud consumer’s on-premise and cloud-based IT resources.
A. hypervisor
B. resource pooling
C. automated scaling listener
D. resource replication
Answer: D
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied together with the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern, so that a hypervisor can be initiated by _____________to allocate more resources for a virtual server.
A. a watchdog monitor
B. a pay-per-use monitor
C. an intelligent automation engine script
D. an automatic scaling listener
300-360 exam 
Answer: C
The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern is applied to resolve issues caused by:
A. Multiple cloud storage devices that need to vertically scale at the same time
B. Cloud consumers that are limited to using one cloud storage device to store multiple applications and services
C. Different disktypesacross redundant cloud storage devices that use different storage methods
D. Cloud consumers that have cloud storage devices in different geographical regions that need to be combined
Answer: B
The system resulting from the application of the Direct LUN Access pattern allows virtual servers to see LUN5 as directly accessible file-based storage.
A. True
B. False
300-360 dumps 
Answer: B
The cloud architecture that is established by the application of the Storage Workload Management pattern can rely on the storage capacity monitor to: (Choose Two)
A. notify the storage capacity system whenever a cloud storage device is being over-utilized
B. migrate LUN5 to different cloud storage devices
C. detect when the workload of a cloud storage device has reached a pre-defined threshold
D. act as an external interlace to a cloud storage service
Answer: A,C
Question No : 21 Where can saved VPN Profiles be located on the BlackBerry Smartphone?
A. Options, Security. VPN
B. Settings. Network Settings. VPN
C. Options. Wi-Fi. VPN
D. Settings. VPN
300-360 pdf 
Answer: B
Question No : 22 What is the name of the Blackberry desktop client for BlackBerry 10 (BB10)?
A. Device Manager
B. WebDesktop
C. BlackBerry Link
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager for BB10
Answer: C
Question No : 23 A user is experiencing difficulty activating a second device using BlackBerry® Web Desktop Manager. What should be checked in BlackBerry Administration Console to ensure a second device can be activated?
A. License limit
B. BlackBerry Controller
C. Email profile
D. Enterprise Proxy
300-360 vce 
Answer: A
Question No : 25 If the owner wishes to continue without signing into or creating a BlackBerry ID when first using a BlackBerry smartphone, what limitations or actions will be encountered?
A. The out of box experience will not complete and the BlackBerry smartphone will remain on the BlackBerry ID screen and persist through device restarts as a valid ID is required to use the BlackBerry smartphone.
B. The BlackBerry smartphone will restart and present the out of box experience from the initial Welcome to BlackBerry screen if an attempt is made to bypass the screen by swiping left.
C. The out of box experience can be completed, but access to BlackBerry apps and services such as downloading applications from BlackBerry App World and setting up BlackBerry Messenger (BBM) will not be available until a BlackBerry ID is associated to the
BlackBerry smartphone.
D. The out of box experience will complete and access to BlackBerry services will be blocked until a security wipe is performed and a BlackBerry ID is associated to the smartphone during the subsequent out of box experience.
300-360 exam 
Answer: C
Question No : 26 What are the two perimeters set when a smartphone/Tablet is activated on a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. Enterprise and Home
B. Work and Personal
C. Server and Personal
D. Work and Home
Answer: B
Question No : 27  A user who does not have Roaming services would like to get data while travelling at no cost. What service needs to be enabled to access Hot Spots?
A. Bluetooth
B. Cellular connection
C. International Roaming
D. Wi-Fi
300-360 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 28 Where can ‘new email’ notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notification -> Messages
B. Options -> Notification -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages
Answer: A
Question No : 29 What constitutes use of a license seat on a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. A user
B. Active user
C. Active devices
D. Active user and devices
300-360 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 30 A user reports that their Email account is reporting an error that states “Your Device is not connected to a network “. What is the cause?
A. Bluetooth radio is not connected to the wireless network
B. Wireless carrier data is not connected
C. Wi-Fi radio is enabled
D. NFC is connected to external device
Answer: B
Question No : 31 Email automatically moved to a subfolder in the mailbox, from an account integrated using Active Sync, is not seen in the Hub. Which of the options below best describes the process to ensure folder sync has been configured?
A. While in BlackBerry Hub, select Option pane (3 seashells, dots), navigate to Settings, Email Account Preferences, and select the integrated Active Sync account, select Folder Settings and verify or select the subfolders for synchronization.
B. Pull down top panel with a downward bezel swipe, select Settings, Accounts and select the integrated Active Sync account, select Edit Folder Settings.
C. Open the Setup application from the home screen, select Accounts, select Set Defaults and select the integrated Active Sync account, open Folder Synchronization and verify or select the desired subfolders.
D. While in the BlackBerry Hub, open the Options panel, select Inbox Management, open the integrated Active Sync account and select Edit Folder Settings and verify or select the desired subfolders.
300-360 vce Answer: B
Question No : 32  Which of the following resources would enable a user who has lost a device to ensure that their contact information is displayed on their BlackBerry?
A. BlackBerry Protect
B. BlackBerry Lost and Found
C. App World
D. BlackBerry Help
Answer: A
Question No : 33
A user reports getting a 403 error while trying to configure their e-mail account. What is the most likely cause?
A. The user is not provisioned for data services.
B. The user* s password has been mistyped.
C. ActiveSync is currently off-line.
D. ActiveSync is not configured with Autodiscover.
300-360 exam Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-165
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Q&As: 187

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  • Explain the concepts of high availability

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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-165 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)

When creating a parameter in Crystal Reports, when is the edit mask option available?
A. For a parameter that uses a dynamic prompt and requires a string value.
B. For any type of parameter that uses a static prompt.
C. For any type of parameter that uses a dynamic prompt.
D. For a parameter that uses a static prompt and requires a string value.
300-165 exam Answer: D
A report requires a pie chart that enables users to drill down on each slice to see the underlyingdetails. Which type of chart layout should you select on the Data tab of the Chart Expert in order to support the report’s requirements?
A. Group
C. Cross-Tab
D. Detail
Answer: A
Which operator can you use in Crystal syntax to comment out a piece of code?
A. Comment (‘)
B. Comment (//)
C. Comment (Rem)
D. Comment (#)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
Which formula can you use in a record selection to include all dates 30 days from the date the report is refreshed?
A. {Orders.Order Date} in Prev30Days
B. {Orders.Order Date} in NextMonth
C. {Orders.Order Date} in NextPeriod
D. {Orders.Order Date} in Next30Days
Answer: D
How can you change a field’s position?
A. Select the Size and Position option in the Report menu.
B. Select the Location option in the Format menu.
C. Right-click the field and choose the Size and Position option.
D. Right-click the field and choose the Location option.
300-165 pdf Answer: C
You need to create a formula that extracts the area code from each customer’s telephone number and displays the region based on the area code. Phone numbers are stored in a text field in the form 555-555-5555. Which formula will meet the stated requirements?
A. Local stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
B. Shared stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF aCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF aCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
C. stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
D. Global numberVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
Answer: A
You create a new Crystal report and add an alert. After refreshing the report the alert is triggered. New data that meets the alert condition is added to the database, but the alert is not triggered again. Why is the alert NOT triggered?
A. The AlertMessage flag is set to “False.”
B. Once an alert is triggered, it is not evaluated again until the report is refreshed.
C. The alert condition must be refreshed after the alert is triggered.
D. Alerts are only triggered once per report.
300-165 vce Answer: B
Which three methods can you use to access the Global Formula Search? (Choose three.)
A. In the Preview Pane, right click on the field.
B. In the Formula Editor, right click on the field.
C. In the Preview Pane, select the field and press Alt-D.
D. In the Formula Editor, select the field and press Alt-D.
Answer: A, B, D
You are designing a Crystal report that contains a chart. Your chart must contain one “On change of” value and one “Show” value. Which three chart types can you use? (Choose three.)
A. Stock
B. Pie
C. Funnel
D. Radar
300-165 exam Answer: B, C, D
Which three options can you use to export a Crystal report to a file type that maintains conditional formatting? (Choose three.)
A. Rich Text Format

B. MS Excel 97-2003
C. Acrobat Format (PDF)
Answer: A, B, C
You are using a parameter to highlight sections in a Crystal Reports 2008 report. What will happen if you run the report with a different parameter value?
A. A database refresh will occur.
B. The report will produce an error.
C. The report refreshes from saved data.
D. A database logon prompt will appear.
300-165 dumps Answer: C
You create a new Crystal report using a dynamic cascading parameter. You want to use all available values in the parameter prompt without selecting each value individually. How can you achieve the required result?
A. Create an “All values” item using a shared variable then reference this item in the record selection formula.
B. Create an “All values” item in a command object then reference this item in the record selection formula.
C. Create an “All values” item using the All command then reference this item in the record selection formula.
D. Create an “All values” item using an argument then reference this item in the record selection formula.
Answer: B
You specify the “read-only” option on the Common tab of the Section Expert. Which action can a user perform on objects in that section when editing the report?
A. Move
B. Copy

C. Format
D. Delete
300-165 pdf Answer: B
You create a new dynamic cascading parameter using an existing prompt group in a report. You receive an “Unable to save the parameter” error message trying to save the parameter. Why does this happen?
A. The Prompt Group Text is not conditionally formatted.
B. The Value names within the dynamic cascading parameter are duplicated elsewhere in the report.
C. The Description field is empty.
D. The prompt group already has parameters bound to each level.
Answer: D
You design a Summary report with the Suppress option selected instead of the Hide option. Which two types of information will be displayed when you double-click a summary figure on the report?(Choose two.)
A. Detail Header information
B. Group Header information
C. Detail Footer information
D. Group Footer information
300-165 vce Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 189

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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (October 2017)

Question No : 1 Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A.a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B.a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C.a route list with no route groups configured
D.a route list with one or more route groups configured
300-070 exam 
Answer: A,D

Question No : 2 What are two benefits of using the DiffServ QoS model? (Choose two)
A. It offers an absolute guarantee of service quality.
B. It is highly scalable.
C. RTCP is scalable.
D. It provides many different levels of quality.
E. RSVP is not scalable.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 3  If the 300-070 dumps route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which
pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Answer: B

Question No : 4  In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN.
To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented. How should CAC be implemented?
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a
combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco
Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Answer: E

Question No : 5  Refer to the exhibit.

300-070 dumps

An engineer is trying to determine the status of the ISDN D Channel on a new PRI circuit,
types in the show isdn status command, and sees this output. Which two pieces of
information can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)
A.The provider is using the 5ESS protocol.
B.There are four channels.
C.The connection to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been established.
D.The D channel is working correctly.
E.No active calls are established.
300-070 pdf 
Answer: D,E

Question No : 6. Change the default user name for this application to Lee Smith.
A. Tools -> options -> General tab -> in the name box delete msingh -> type Lee Smith
Answer: A
Question No :7. Switch to Slide Sorter View.

A. View -> select slide sorter
300-070 vce Answer: A
Question No :8. Create a Title Slide, with placeholders for both a title and a sub-title.

A. Insert -> new slide -> select the title slide
Answer: A
Question No :9. This travel company uses an approved range of corporate templates.
Apply the design template Sunny Days to this presentation.

A. Format -> apply design template -> select Sunny Days -> Apply
300-070 exam Answer: A
Question No :10. If Maria were deleted from this organisation chart, which one of the following statements would be

A. Miguel and Lee would become sub-ordinates of Paul.
B. Miguel and Lee would report directly to Alexandra
C. Miguel and Lee would become co-workers of Naim and Michelle.
D. You would be prompted to give Miguel and Lee a new manager.

Answer: B
Question No : 11.Open the presentation named Training.ppt, which is in the My Documents folder.

Answer: Click on open tool ->click on my documents -> select Training.ppt ->open
Question No : 12.Create a new blank presentation.

Answer: Click on the new tool from the standard toolbar
Question No : 13.Save the Company Strategy presentation as an Outline/RTF file. You don’t need to change the file

Answer: File -> save as -> use the drop down list in the save as type box and select outline/RTF-> save
Question No : 14.Access the Slide Master, and remove the graphic of the skier.
Answer: View -> master -> slide master -> select the graphic -> press delete from the keyboard
Question No :15.Access the Header and Footer dialog box and add slide numbers to all slides except for the title slide
of this presentation.

Answer: View -> header and footer -> check the slide number -> check don’t show on title slide -> apply
to all

_________Help define the role and responsibilities of auditors to internal and external entities.
Where as _______establish the basic principles and guidance to assist auditors in the
performance of their duties?
A. Technical standards, Standards
B. Standards, Defense standards
C. Audit standards, Standards
D. Standards, Open standards
300-070 dumps Answer: C
Audit standards were developed and are followed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To provide uniform guidance to auditors and to establish a basis for conducting internal and
external reviews of quality audits.
B. To build credibility and confidence in the auditing profession.
C. To inform customers (the public, public officials, management, stockholders, etc.) about the role
D. Audit staff qualifications and Quality control
Answer: D
All of the following groups benefit from the existence of audit standards in a variety of ways
A. Elected officials and the public receive increased assurance that public funds are being
effectively used and monitored
B. Government organization
C. Management receives increased assurance that fraud or other organizational deficiencies will
be detected and corrected.
D. External parties and reviewers are provided with usable measurement guidelines.
300-070 pdf Answer: B
Governmental auditing is distinctive and encompasses different requirements from auditing
commercial or not-for-profit enterprises. The standards that apply specifically to government audits
are all of the following EXCEPT:
A. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB).
B. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
C. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
D. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As: 378

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Refer to the exhibit.
200-355 dumps

A customer has enabled the primary 200-355 exam DNS server to return the correct controller IP address in response to
a CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain request coming from new access points associating to
the wireless network. The access points seem to still be receiving the wrong IP address and cannot
associate to the primary controller. Why are the access points receiving the wrong IP information?
A. The DHCP option 43 has an incorrect controller IP address configured.
B. The DNS server must be configured to respond to CISCO-LWAPP- CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. The controller and wireless action point need to be Layer 2 adjacent.
D. The controller must be configured for DHCP option 15 request.
Correct Answer: A
A customer has ordered a Cisco 5760 Wireless Controller. What speed and quantity of ports are needed
for full-speed operation?
A. 6 x 1 Gb
B. 6 x 10 Gb
C. 2 x 10 Gb
D. 2 x 1 Gb
E. 8 x 1 Gb
F. 8 x 10 Gb

Correct Answer: B
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless 200-355 dumps connection to an enterprise wireless network?
(Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Correct Answer: ACD
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows
frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in
RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
200-355 pdf 
Correct Answer: BE
This is an agreement (“Agreement”) between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
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Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation’s intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
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any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
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Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
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You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
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Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
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injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining

to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click ‘Yes, I agree.’, and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click ‘No, I do not agree.’, and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending
QUESTION 6. What controls access from one network segment to another?
A. hub
C. sensor
D. firewall
200-355 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 7. Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself overa computer
network and usually performs malicious actions?
A. virus
B. zero-day exploit
C. spam D.
Answer: D
QUESTION 8. Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
200-355 exam Answer: BEFHI

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Exam Code: 210-065
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)
Updated: Aug 24, 2017
Q&As: 274

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1. On which is RES PowerFuse software installed in a workstation deployment scenario?
1:All workstations
2:Domain controllers
3:All terminal servers
4: File and database servers
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
210-065 exam Answer: A
2. A company consists of 1 site, 3000 concurrent users, 80 terminal servers, 300 workstations with RES
Subscriber installed.
What is the BEST RES PowerFuse deployment scenario for this company?
A. Clustered FoxPro database
B. Clustered MSSQL database
C. Clustered fileshare and a clustered FoxPro database
D. Clustered fileshare and a clustered MSSQL database
Answer: D
3. On which is RES PowerFuse software installed in a Hybrid Environment deployment scenario?
1:All workstations
2:Domain controllers
3:All terminal servers
4:File and database servers
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
210-065 dumps Answer: A

4. Which statement is true?
A laptop uses the
1:local database when it is online.
2:local database when it is offline.
3:central database when it has an online connection.
4:central database when it has an offline connection.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
5. What database scenario is correct for setting up a new RES PowerFuse environment which consists of
workstations, laptops and terminal servers?
A. One database for laptops, workstations and terminal servers
B. One database for laptops and one for workstations and terminal servers
C. One database for terminal servers and one for workstations and laptops
D. One database for laptops, one for workstations, and one for terminal servers
210-065 pdf Answer: C
6. What should be verified first after installing RES PowerFuse?
A. Whether the RES Service is installed.
B. Whether Active Directory is correctly enumerated. C.
The permissions on the RES PowerFuse file share.
D. Whether the RES PowerFuse database has been created.
Answer: C
7. Which port does the RES Service use?
A. 1942 TCP

B. 1942 UDP
C. 3163 TCP
D. 3163 UDP
210-065 vce Answer: A
8. Why is it NOT advisable to use a local system account for the RES Service?
A. Because it lacks “write” permissions on the fileshare
B. Because it does not have the “log on as a service” privilege
C. Because it unnecessarily increases local system overhead
D. Because it has insufficient rights to connect to a remote SQL database
Answer: A
9. Supported RES PowerFuse setup types include
A. Real Access Manager only.
B. RES Subscriber Agent only.
C. RES PowerFuse Agent only.
D. Real Enterprise Manager only.
210-065 exam Answer: D
10. To enable support for Group Nesting, support for which of the following needs to be enabled first?
A. Multiple Domains
B. Domain Local Groups
C. Novell Directory Services
D. Microsoft Active Directory Services
Answer: D
11. When a workstation running RES PowerFuse starts a session on a terminal server also running RES
PowerFuse, a license is required
A. for both the workstation and the terminal server session.
B. on the workstation, but not for the terminal server session.

C. on the workstation, but a terminal server license is only needed for a published desktop.
D. on the workstation, but a terminal server license is only needed for a published application.
210-065 dumps Answer: B
12. What restrictions apply when RES PowerFuse is running in trial mode?
A. A maximum of one domain and a trial mode message
B. A maximum of five concurrent users and a trial mode message
C. A maximum of one application per menu and a maximum of one domain
D. A maximum of one application per menu and a maximum of five concurrent users
Answer: B
13. What licenses are needed for a laptop environment?
A. A laptop site license and laptop licenses
B. A laptop site license and workstation licenses
C. A workstation site license and laptop licenses
D. A workstation site license and workstation licenses
210-065 pdf Answer: C
14. Given the following,
50 users working on a RES PowerFuse laptop environment that are also connecting to the RES
PowerFuse Terminal Server environment
150 users working concurrently on a RES PowerFuse Terminal Server environment connecting with Thin
300 users working on a RES PowerFuse workstation environment that are also connecting to the RES
PowerFuse Terminal Server environment
What RES PowerFuse licenses are required in this environment?
A. A Terminal Site license with a 450 user license pack and a workstation site license
B. A Terminal Site license with a 150 user license pack and a workstation site license with a 350 user pack
C. A Terminal Site license with a 150 user license pack and a workstation site license with a 300 user pack
and 50 laptop licenses

D. A Terminal Site license with a 150 user license pack and a workstation site license with a 300 user pack
and a laptop site license with a 50 laptop license pack
Answer: C
15. What happens when the RES PowerFuse Shell is being used and a user double-clicks the system
tray clock?
A. RES PowerFuse calendar is displayed
B. Default Microsoft Outlook calendar is displayed
C. RES PowerFuse Task Scheduler is displayed
D. Windows Date and Time properties are displayed
210-065 vce Answer: A
16. The default pwruser.ini file is located in the
A. User profile.
B. Model directory.
C. User home directory.
D. %programfiles%\RES PowerFuse
Answer: B
17. How can an administrator prevent a user from removing specific application shortcuts from
A. By enforcing the “Lock the Taskbar” policy for that user
B. By setting the shortcut mandatory when editing the application
C. By setting “pwruser.ini” to read-only with home drive maintenance
D. By limiting PowerPanel to “change password and change desktop colors”
210-065 exam Answer: B
18. Which is a feature found ONLY in PowerPrint Advanced?
A. Clearing the print spooler
B. Managing active print jobs

C. Connecting to a non-default printer
D. Setting a default printer per location
Answer: D
19. What does PowerHelp enable a user to do?
A. Request access to an application
B. Configure application specific settings
C. Report software problems to the IT staff
D. View access information about an application
210-065 dumps Answer: D
20. With PowerHelp, the access information list may differ from the support information list, because
Application Managers may
A. have an insufficient Security Role.
B. have incompatible accessible PowerZones.
C. belong to another Group to which they are limited.
D. belong to another Organizational Unit to which they are limited.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Latest Pass4itsure 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (June 2017)#10-24

When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied
to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to
the destination
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.


If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how
will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and
sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn
Correct Answer: C
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from
accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local
URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local
URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local
URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: A
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to
enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)

F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations?
(Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABD
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A
Which syslog severity level is level number 7?
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: D

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