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QUESTION 1
In this section, you’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions
might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration
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You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4 Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients
Solution From a Group Policy object (GPO) in tne domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine.
You need to provide VM1 with direct access to a graphics processing unit (GPU) on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Disable the display adapter device on Server1.
B. In the settings of VM1, add a RemoteFX 3D Video Adapter.
C. On VM1, install the Quality Windows Audio Video Experience (qWave) feature.
D. Dismount the display adapter on Server1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You plan to use Windows Server Backup to back up all of the data on Server1. You create a new volume on Server1.
You need to ensure that the new volume can be used as a backup target. The backup target must support incremental backups.
Solution: You mount the volume to C:\Backup, and you format the volume by using NTFS.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 You install the Docker daemon on Server! You need to configure the Docker daemon to accept connections only on TCP port 64500. What should you do?
A. Run theNew-NetFirewallRulecmdlet
B. Run theSet-ServiceWindows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Edit the daemon.json file.
D. Edit the configuration json file
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a Nano Server named Nano1.
You deploy several containers to Nano1 that use an image named Image1.
You need to deploy a new container to Nano1 that uses Image1.
What should you run?
A. the Install-NanoServerPackage cmdlet
B. theInstall-WindowsFeaturecmdlet
C. the docker load command
D. the docker run command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can use nested virtualization on VM1.
What should you run on Server1?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 7
You have a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V failover cluster that contains two nodes named Node1 and Node2
On Node1, you create a virtual machine named VM01 by using Hyper-V Manage.
You need to configure VM01 to move to Node2 automatically if Node1 becomes unavailable
What should you do?A. From Failover Cluster manager, run the configure Role actions.
B. From Hyper-V Manager, click VM01 and click Enable Replication.
C. From Hyper-V Manager Click Node 1 and the modify the hyper-V settings.
D. From Windows Powershell, run the Enable-VMReplication cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server! is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. Server1 has three network adapter cards That connect to a virtual switch named vSwitch1. You configure
NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit.
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You need to ensure that VM1 will retain access to the network if a physical adapter card fails on Server1. What should you do?
A. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings of VM1.
B. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run theSet-VmSwitchcmdlet.
C. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, add the adapter named Ethernet to the NIC team.
D. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1. change the load balancing of the NIC team.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to implement network virtualization.
On which object should you configure the virtual subnet ID?
A. Virtual switch
B. Hyper-V server
C. VM
D. Virtual network adapter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You install the Hyper-V server role on VM1.
You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on VM1 can communicate with the virtual machines hosted on Server1.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterIsolation cmdlet and specify the–MultiTenantStack Off parameter.
B. On VM1, run the Set-VMNetworkAdapter cmdlet and specify the –MacAddressSpoofing Off parameter.
C. On VM1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterIsolation cmdlet and specify the–MultiTenantStack On parameter.
D. On Server1, run the Set-VMNetworkAdapter cmdlet and specify the–MacAddressSpoofing On parameter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed.
An iSCSI SAN connects to the network.
You create a LUN on the SAN and configure both servers to connect to the iSCSI target.
You create a failover cluster and add Server1 and Server2 to the cluster. You connect both servers to the iSCSI target and format the shared storage.
You need to add the shared storage to the cluster. The solution must ensure that virtual machines running on both nodes can access the shared storage simultaneously.
Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management snap-in
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management snap-in
F. the Failover Cluster Manager snap-in
G. the Hyper-V Manager snap-in
H. the Server Manager app
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
On Server1, you use the Basic template to create a new Data Collector Set named CollectorSet1.
You need to configure CollectorSet1 to generate performance alerts.
What should you do before you start CollectorSet1?
A. Modify the performance counter data collector of CollectorSet1.
B. Add a new data collector to CollectorSet1.
C. Modify the configuration data collector of CollectorSet1.
D. Add a new task to CollectorSet1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a Hyper-V failover cluster that contains three nodes. Virtual machines are distributed evenly across the cluster nodes.
You need to ensure that if a node loses connectivity from the other nodes, the virtual machines on the node will be transitioned to one of the remaining nodes after one minute.
Which settings should you modify?A. QuarantineDuration and QuarantineThreshold
B. SameSubnetDelay and CrossSubnetDelay
C. QuorumArbitrationTimeMax and RequestReplyTimeout
D. ResiliencyPeriod and ResiliencyLevel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You have a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2016. The host contains a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has resource metering enabled. You need to use resource metering to track the amount of network traffic that VM1 sends to the
10.0.0.0/8 network.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-VMNetworkAdapteiAd
B. Set-VMNetworkAdapter
C. New-VMResourcePool
D. Set-VMNetworkAdapterRoutingDomamMapping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. A firewall exists between Server1 and Server2.
Both servers run Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). Server1 downloads updates from Microsoft update.
Server2 must synchronize updates from Server1.
Which port should to open on the firewall?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 3389
D. 8530
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server.
Which type of virtual network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well any network traffic between the management operating system and the external network.
A. Private virtual network
B. Internal virtual network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 are connected to the same network.
On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machines shown in the following table.
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All three virtual machines are connected to Switch1.
You need to prevent applications in VM3 from being able to capture network traffic from VM1 or VM2. The solution must ensure that VM1 retains network connectivity.
What should you do?
A. On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
B. On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.
C. Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
D. Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You have a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to identify the amount of processor resources consumed by Hyper-V and virtual machines.
Which counter should you use from Performance Monitor?
A. \Hyper-V Hypervisor\Logical Processor
B. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Root Virtual Processor(_Total)\% Guest Run Time
C. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Virtual Processor(_Total)\% Hypervisor Run Time
D. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Virtual Processor(_Total)\% Total Run Time
E. \Hyper-V Hypervisor Logical Processor(_Total)\% Total Run Time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have a Nano Server that runs Windows Server 2016. The Nano Server runs on a physical machine.
You have not Installed any packages on the server.
You attach a new disk to the server, and you initialize the disk as a GPT disk.
You need to create an RefS-formatted volume on the new disk.
What should you do first?
A. From the physical server, log on to the Nano Server Recovery Console.
B. Install the Microsoft-Nano’Server-Host-Package package.
C. Run me Format-Vokime cmdlet and specify the -FileSystem switch.
D. Install the Microsoft NanoServef-Storage-Package package.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to implement Storage Replica to replicate the contents of volumes on Server1 to Server2.
You need to ensure that the replication traffic between the servers is limited to a maximum of 100 Mbps.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetUDPSetting
B. New-StorageQosPolicy
C. Set-SmbBandwidthLimit
D. Set-NetTCPSetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You are configuring a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster in a workgroup.
Before installing one of the nodes, you run the ipconfig /all command and receive the following output
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You need lo ensure that Server 1 can be added as a node in the cluster What should you do1?
A. Assign a static IP address
B. Change the Node Type to Broadcast
C. Configure a DNS suffix
D. Enable NetBIOS over TCP/IP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Note This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of Repeated Scenario:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2 All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2016 Standard. The domain contains 300
client computers that run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.
The domain contains nine servers that are configured as shown in the following table.
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The virtual machines are configured as follows:
Each virtual machine has one virtual network adapter
VM1 and VM2 are part of a Network Load Balancing (NIB) cluster.
All of the servers on the network can communicate with all of the virtual machines.
End of repeated Scenario.
You need to minimize the likelihood that a virtual machine running malicious code will consume excessive resources on Server5.
What should you do?
A. Configure the virtual machines as shielded virtual machines.
B. Run the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet and specify the –EnableHostResourceProtection Parameter.
C. Run the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet and specify the –MaximumCountPerNumaNode Parameter.
D. Configure VM Network Adapter Isolation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
You have four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016. Each server has a single 4-TB SATA hard disk.
To each server you attach a new 4-TB SATA hard disk.
You need to create a new storage cluster that uses Storage Spaces Direct. The storage pool must contain all of the new disks.
Which command should you run before you enable Storage Space Direct?
A. Add-ClusterSharedVolume –Name “Disk 1” –Cluster Cluster1
B. New-Cluster –Name Cluster1 –Node ‘Server1’, ‘Server2’, ‘Server3’, ‘Server4’ -NoStorage
C. Get-ClusterAvailableDisk –Cluster Cluster1 | Add-ClusterDisk
D. New-ClusterStorageEnclosure –id 1 –name Cluster1 –type jbod –ConnectionString “Server1,Server2,Server3,Server4”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled. You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an Active Directory group named Group1 an hour ago. You need to restore the membership of Group1.
What should you do?
A. Perform tombstone reanimation.
B. Export and import data by using Dsamain.
C. Perform a non-authoritative restore.
D. Recover the items by using Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
You have Hyper-V virtual machines that run 50 web servers, 10 Microsoft SQL Server servers. 10 file servers, and eight domain controllers.
You need to implement a backup strategy that meets the following requirements:
*Backs up all servers
*Centralizes backup management
*Performs application-level backups
*Provides the ability to perform bare metal recovery What should you use?
A. Microsoft Azure VM Backup
B. Microsoft Azure Backup Agent
C. Windows Server Backup
D. Microsoft Azure Backup Server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
Server1 and VM1 run Windows Server 2016.
The settings for VM1 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that you can use the Copy-VMFile cmdlet on Server1 to copy files from VM1.
Solution: You connect VM1 to an internal virtual switch.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 You plan to deploy several shielded virtual machines on Server1
You deploy a Host Guardian on a new server
You need to ensure that Server1 can host shielded virtual machines.
What should you run first?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
H. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 28
You have an Active Director domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server 1, Server2 and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Hyper V cluster named Cluster1. You add a Hyper V Replica Broker role named Broker 1 to Cluster 1
Server3 is a Hyper-V server. A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Server3.
Live Migration is enabled on all three servers and it is configured to use Kerberos authentication only.
You need to ensure that you can perform the migration of VM1 to Server2
What should you do?
A. Modify the Cluster Permissions for Cluster1.
B. Modify the Storage Migration settings on Server3.
C. Modify the Delegation settings for the Server3 computer account.
D. Add the Server3 computer account to the Replicator group on Server1 and Server2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender is enable…….
Server1 runs an application named App1 that stores various types of files in Microsoft One…….. and Microsoft SharePoint Online. App1 also interacts with several local services.
You need to prevent Windows Defender from scanning any files opened by App1.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Run the New-AppLockerPolicy cmdlet.
B. Modify the real-time protection settings in Windows Defender.
C. Modify the cloud-based protection settings in Windows Defender.
D. From the Windows Defender settings, configure a process exclusion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 You install the Docker daemon on Server! You need to configure the Docker daemon to accept connections only on TCP port 64500.
What should you do?
A. Run theNew-NetFirewallRulecmdlet
B. Edit the daemon.json file.
C. Run theSet-ServiceWindows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. Edit the configuration json file
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-743 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)

QUESTION 36
Examine the figure given below: Which path is considered the critical path?
A. ACDFJ
B. ACGIJ
C. ABEFJ
D. ABDFJ
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical path is the path in the project network diagram with the longest duration. In project management, a critical path is the sequence of project network activities which add up to the longest overall duration. This determines the shortest time possible to complete the project. Any delay of an activity on the critical path directly impacts the planned project completion date (i.e. there is no float on the critical path). In this instance path ACGIJ is the longest as it takes 23 days. Answer options C and D are incorrect. These paths take 13 days. Answer option A is incorrect. This path only takes 19 days.

QUESTION 37
Winnie is the project manager for her company. She has been recording the actual durations of the project work to determine the actual progress of her project. Winnie needs to generate an updated project schedule based on project performance. She is using the supporting schedule data, manual scheduling methods, and her project management software to perform schedule network analysis. What other tool Winnie can use to help and generate an updated project schedule?
A. Critical path method
B. Schedule management plan
C. Scheduling tool
D. Critical chain method
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The scheduling tool is the only other tool that can help Winnie to create an updated project schedule. The scheduling tool is used in combination with manual methods or further project management software to carry out the schedule network analysis to produce an updated project schedule. Answer option A is incorrect. The critical path method can be analyzed, but it is a part of the project management information system. In addition, the critical path is not better or worse than the critical chain method so by having both
answers among the choices both answers are cancelled. Answer option D is incorrect. The critical chain method can be analyzed, but it is the part of the project management information system. In addition, the critical path is not better or worse than the critical path method so by having both answers among the choices both answers are cancelled. Answer option B is incorrect. The schedule management plan may need to be referenced to create a new project schedule, but it is not a tool that Winnie can use.

QUESTION 38
You are the project manager of the NHQ project. Your project has a budget of $1,258,456 and is scheduled to last for three years. Your project is currently forty percent complete though it should be forty five percent complete. In order to reach this point of the project, you have spent $525,000. Management needs a performance report regarding the NHQ project. Management is concerned that this project will be over budget upon completion. What is the estimate at completion for this project that you will need to report to management?
A. -$62,922.80
B. $1,312,504
C. $1,525,000
D. $787,504
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The estimate at completion can be calculated by dividing the budget at completion by the cost performance index. Here, CPI =EV/AC=(0.40*1,258,456)/525000 = 0.95882 EAC = BAC/CPI = 1,258456/0.95882 = 1,312,504 What is Estimate at Completion (EAC)? Estimate at Completion (EAC) is a field that displays the final cost of the project including the actual costs and the forecast of remaining costs based on the cost performance index (CPI) so far. The formula used to calculate this estimate is as follows: ACWP+(BAC-BCWP)/CPI Answer option D is incorrect. $787,504 is the estimate to complete. Answer option A is incorrect. -$62,922.80 is the schedule variance. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid calculation for this question.

QUESTION 39
John works as the project manager for Honeywell Inc. He is involved in the periodic collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress. Which of the following techniques is used in generating performance reports?
A. Work performance information
B. Change requests
C. Work performance measurements
D. Forecasting method
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Forecasting method is a technique used in generating performance reports. Forecasting is the process of estimating or predicting in unknown situations. Forecasting is about predicting the future as accurately as possible with the help of all the information available, including historical data and knowledge of any future events that might impact forecasts. The forecasting methods are categorized as follows: Time series method: It uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes. Causal/ econometric method: This forecasting method is based on the assumption that it is possible to identify some factors that might influence the variable that is being forecasted. If the causes are understood, projections of the influencing variables can be made and used in the forecast. Judgmental method: Judgmental forecasting methods incorporate intuitive judgments, opinions, and subjective probability estimates. Other methods: Other methods may include probabilistic forecasting, simulation, and ensemble forecasting. It is one of the tools and techniques of the report performance process. Answer option A is incorrect. Work performance information is the data gathered on the status of the project schedule activities that are performed to accomplish the project work. This data is collected as part of the Direct and Manage Project Execution processes. WPI includes the following: Deliverables status Schedule Progress Costs incurred It is used as an input in generating the report performance process. Answer option C is incorrect. Work performance measurements are created from the work performance information. WPMs are an output of Control schedule, Control cost, and Control scope processes, which
are monitoring and controlling processes. WPMs consist of planned versus actual performance indicators with respect to scope, schedule, and cost. They are documented and communicated to the stakeholders and are used to make project activity metrics, such as the following: Planned vs. Actual Technical performance and Scope performance Planned vs. Actual Schedule performance Planned vs. Actual Cost performance They are used as an input in generating the report performance process. Answer option B is
  incorrect. Change requests are requests to expand or reduce the project scope, modify policies, processes, plans, or procedures, modify costs or budgets or revise schedules. These requests for a change can be direct or indirect, externally or internally initiated, and legally or contractually imposed or optional. A Project Manager needs to ensure that only formally documented requested changes are processed and only approved change requests are implemented. It is an output of the report performance process.

QUESTION 40
Which of the following are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Procurement document
B. Contract
C. Business case
D. Project statement of work
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Develop Project Charter process documents the formal authorization of a project or a phase. It also documents initial requirements that satisfy the stakeholder’s needs and expectations. It is used to validate the decisions made during the previous iteration of the Develop Project Charter process. The various inputs of this process are as follows: Project statement of work Business case
Contract Enterprise environmental factors Organizational process assets The output of the Develop project Charter process is as follows: Project charter Answer option A is incorrect. Procurement document is the input of the Identify Stakeholders process.

QUESTION 41
Beth is the project manager for the NHQ project. This project deals with fiber optic cabling in her organizational campus. Tim is the electrical engineer for her company and is the only internal resource that can complete several of the project activities that deal with the fiber optic cables. Because Tim is a highly skilled resource, he is already scheduled on several projects within the organization and is not available when Beth needs him to complete some of the project activities. This is an example of which term?
A. Resource calendar conflict
B. Matrix network
C. Organizational process assets
D. Activity resource requirements
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the activities in Beth’s project require Tim and his skills. This is an example of an activity resource requirement. A resource constraint would also have been an acceptable answer. Answer option B is incorrect. This may be a matrix organization, but matrix network is not a valid project management term. Answer option C is incorrect. Organizational process assets are things that have been created to help assist the management of the project. Answer option A is incorrect. A resource calendar conflict is not a valid project management term.

QUESTION 42
John works as a Project Manager for Blue Well Inc. He is measuring cost efficiency of his project. The key values are provided in the table below:  What is the cost performance index (CPI) of the project at the current point of time?
A. 0.96
B. 1.082
C. 0.833
D. 1.0625
70-743 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the question, you are required to calculate the cost performance index (CPI) of the project. Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. The CPI is calculated based on the following formula: CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target. Here, CPI is as follows: CPI = EV / AV = 425/510 = 0.833 As the CPI (0.833) is less than 1, it shows that the schedule performance is below expectation. What is BCWP (or EV)? Budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP) or Earned Value (EV) is the value of completed work. It is the budgeted amount for the work actually completed on the schedule activity during a given time period. What is BCWS (or PV)? Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) or Planned Value (PV) is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work to be accomplished for a schedule activity or Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) component. What is ACWP (or AC)? Actual cost of work performed (ACWP) or Actual Cost (AC) is the total costs actually incurred and recorded in accomplishing work performed during a given time period for a schedule activity. It is the cost of the work to date, including direct and indirect costs. AC is money that has actually been expended to date.

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
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1. According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision

70-764 exam Answer: A
2. In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E
3. Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
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Answer: D
4. If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the
Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?
A. TOGAF Extension

B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: C
5. Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To show the evolution of deliverables
D. To support change management
70-764 pdf 
Answer: B
6.Which of the following describe the functions of a scheduling algorithm? (Choose 4)
A. Reduce the total amount of computation necessary to complete a job.
B. Allow short Jobs to complete even when large, long jobs (consuming a lot of resources) arerunning.
C. Support the implementation of service-level agreements for multiple cluster users.
D. Allow multiple users to share clustersina predictable, policy-guided manner.
E. Run jobs at periodic times of the day.
F. Reduce job latencies in an environment withmultiple jobs of different sizes.
Answer: A,D,E,F
7.You are running a Hadoop cluster with all monitoring facilities properly configured. Which scenario will
go undetected.?
A. Map or reduce tasks that are stuck in an infinite loop.
B. HDFS is almost full.
C. The NameNode goes down.
D. A DataNode is disconnectedfrom the cluster.
E. MapReduce jobs that are causing excessive memory swaps.
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Answer: C
8.Which of the following scenarios makes HDFS unavailable?
A. JobTracker failure
B. TaskTracker failure
C. DataNode failure
D. NameNode failure
E. Secondary NameNode failure
Answer: A
9.The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True

B.False
70-764 exam Answer: A
10.Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose
four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module B.
Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric. C.
There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire
chassis
Answer: A,B,C,E
11.What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups
supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups B.
13 groups C.
24 groups D.
64 groups E.
128 groups
70-764 dumps Answer: D
14.Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800?
(Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority
applications
Answer: A,B,D
15.Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on
the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)

A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
70-764 pdf Answer: A,B
16.Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port
1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode E.
1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only F.
1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Answer: B,D,E
17.Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
70-764 exam Answer: B,C
18.What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable
feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the
network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
manages Layer 2 switched links
Answer: D
19.Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise
networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches

C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric
design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of
network attacks
70-764 dumps Answer: C,D,E
20.Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network?
(Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation
Answer: A,B,E
21.Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com
products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP
wiring
70-764 pdf Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Aug 09, 2017
Q&As: 49

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1.Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
70-742 exam Answer: C
2.Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as “projects” and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000.The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status.
How would you define this situation?
A. Because each individual order is a “temporary endeavor,” each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C
3.A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
70-742 dumps Answer: C
4.All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A
5.A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.

70-742 pdf Answer: C
6.While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track.
What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A
7.You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country.
Which of the following should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
70-742 vce Answer: A
8.An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do.
What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C
9.What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller’s estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
70-742 exam Answer: A
10.You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project.

It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C
11.If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
70-742 dumps Answer: C
12.The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip.
What is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A
13.A project manager has made a change to the project.
What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
70-742 pdf Answer: B
14.A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B
15.A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change.
What is the MOST appropriate advice for the situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project

planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
70-742 vce Answer: C

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Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 46

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QUESTION NO: 1
Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest
impact on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. Theusers status in the organisation
70-734 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring
aprofessional approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your
team has confided in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would
youexplain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure
usersatisfaction with services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the
support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to
meetdelivery of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards ofbehaviour
70-734 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First
Contact Resolution performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels

70-734 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managingusers expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of
yourprincipal responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers tousers questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
70-734 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the ITorganisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for
assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to theorganisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
70-734 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What
is the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistentbehaviour
B. Company policiesemphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet theirmanagers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
70-734 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are
procedures and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for
consistent procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not becriticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
70-734 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently

B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
70-734 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will notcriticise my behaviour
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
70-734 pdf Answer: C

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