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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-487 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)
QUESTION 29
You add a class named ShippingInfo. You need to modify the IShippingService interface and the ShippingInfo class to meet the technical requirements. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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70-487转储
70-487转储

QUESTION 30
You need to modify the ExecuteCommandProcedure() method to meet the technical requirements. Which code segment should you use? Select and Place:
70-487转储
70-487转储

QUESTION 31
The PurchaseOrders.xml file contains all of the purchase orders for the day. You need to query the XML file for all of the shipping addresses. Which code segment should you use?
70-487转储
70-487转储
70-487 exam
Correct Answer:
B

QUESTION 32
You need to choose the appropriate data access technology for the cookbook area of the web application. Which data access technology should you choose?
A. WCF Data Services
B. LINQ to SQL
C. Entity Framework
D. ADO.NET
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
You need to update the ImportBooks() method to use database transactions. Which code segment should you use?
A. SqlConnection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.RepeatableRead);
B. SqlConnection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLeve.ReadUnconvnited);
C. SqlConneetion.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable);
D. SqlConnection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Snapshot);
70-487 dumps 

Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company. The libraries must be shared across the company. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries. What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

QUESTION 35
Which one of the following commands will install an EZ Template for OpenVZ?
A. vzpkg p template
B. vzpkg install template
C. vzinstall template
D. vzctl p template
E. vzctl install template
70-487 pdf 

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
Which option to the xm command will deactivate a live Xen virtual machine? (Select TWO correct
answers)
A. destroy

B. remove
C. shutdown
D. stop
E. halt
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 37
How is the AMDV extension made available in a KVM environment?
A. modprobe qemu_kvm
B. modprobe kvm_intel
C. modprobe kvm_amd
D. modprobe kvm_amd_v
E. modprobe kvm_any
70-487 vce 

Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
You have created a configuration file named /etc/xen/debian.cfg for a virtual machine. The virtual machine starts correctly on the command line, However, the virtual machine is not starting automatically when the server is powered on or rebooted. What can be done to start the virtual machine automatically?
A. It is necessary to add xendomains_auto = yes to the virtual machine configuration file.
B. It is necessary to configure the xend daemon to start automatically when Domain0 starts.
C. It is necessary to run the command xm autostart debian.cfg.
D. It is necessary to add a symbolic link to the configuration file in /etc/xen/auto directory.
E. It is not possible to use Xen and its tools to start virtual machines automatically.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
What is the main technical advantage that will be available on a server after installing virtualization technologies such as Xen or KVM?
A. The execution time of processes which use the CPU intensively will be reduced.
B. The computing power of the server will be increased.
C. The number of running kernel instances will be limited to one.
D. It will be possible to share physical resources between insulated execution environments.
E. It will be possible to create virtual networks.
70-487 exam 

Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
Global Network Block Device (GNBD) provides block device access to GFS over which mechanism?
A. UDP/IP
B. SCSI
C. eSATA
D. TCP/IP
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 41
How can you verify that you have correctly configured SSH access to your Junos device?
A. [email protected]# show system services
B. [email protected]> show configuration services
C. [email protected]# show configuration system services
D. [email protected]# show system login
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 42
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices, unlike static routing.
B. Dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration, unlike static routing.
C. Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
D. Dynamic routing typically requires less time to implement than static routing in a large network.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 43
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?
A. It uses ASICs for increased performance.
B. It is the intelligence of the platform.
C. It maintains the routing tables.
D. It is based on an x86 architecture.
70-487 pdf 

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which two can be used to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to RIP neighbors?
(Choose two.)
A. set protocols rip export demo
B. edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static
set term 1 then accept
C. edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static accept
D. set protocols rip group internal export demo
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 45
By default, which character indicates the configuration mode prompt?
A. #
B. >
C. $
D. %
70-487 vce 

Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 46
Which protocol creates a complete database of the network topology prior to calculating the optimal route?
A. BGP
B. PIM
C. OSPF
D. RIP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 47
Which two statements are correct about Layer 2 broadcast frames? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 broadcast frames are processed by all devices on the same VLAN.
B. Layer 2 broadcast frames are discarded by routers that connect to multiple VLANs.
C. Layer 2 broadcast frames are relayed by routers to all connected VLANs.
D. Layer 2 broadcast frames are relayed by switches to devices on the same VLAN.
70-487 exam 
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 48
Which three user authentication methods are supported by the Junos OS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. CHAP
C. local user database
D. TACACS+
E. PAP
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 49
You are modifying the default route preference under the [edit protocols] hierarchy. In which two routing information sources can you change the default preference value? (Choose two.)
A. local
B. OSPF
C. direct
D. BGP
70-487 dumps 

Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 50
You have received a default route through BGP from your ISP and you want to redistribute it into OSPF. Which method will accomplish this?
A. Apply an export policy to OSPF that exports the default route.
B. Apply an import policy to OSPF that imports the default route.
C. Apply the default-network command to OSPF.
D. Apply the redistribute-igp command to BGP.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 51
You have a network containing 120 routers. You must establish and maintain connectivity between the loopback interfaces of all routers. Because of the critical services using the network, you need redundancy and fast failover. Which routing protocol should you use in this scenario?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. static
70-487 pdf 

Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 52
By default, what are three valid routing tables? (Choose three.)
A. inet.0
B. inet4.0
C. inet.6
D. inet6.0
E. inet.3
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 53
Which three steps are part of the root password recovery process? (Choose three.)
A. Reboot the device.
B. Run the recovery script.
C. Reset the root password.
D. Reset the user passwords.
E. Load factory-default configuration.
70-487 vce 

Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 54
What represents the decimal equivalence of 01101110?
A. 90
B. 96
C. 110
D. 118
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 55
During a password recovery, what is the next step after configuring the system to boot into single-user mode?
A. Reset the root password.
B. Press the space bar.
C. Type recovery.
D. Press the “Enter” key.
70-487 exam 

Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 56
What are two purposes of a forwarding class? (Choose two.)
A. to identify traffic that should be dropped
B. to classify traffic
C. to identify traffic that should receive common treatment
D. to assign traffic to output queues
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 57
Which three statements are true about terms in a policy? (Choose three.)
A. The order of the terms in a policy is irrelevant.
B. The action is specified in a then statement.
C. Terms are optional in a policy.
D. The match condition can be identified with a from statement.
E. A from statement is mandatory in a term.
70-487 dumps 

Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 58
Which two statements are true about terms in a routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. A routing policy cannot have more than one term.
B. If a term does not contain a from statement, all routes match.
C. If a term does not contain a from statement, the Junos OS will not commit.
D. A then statement is not mandatory in a term.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 59
What is the purpose of a network mask?
A. It is used in conjunction with the wildcard mask to determine the number of hosts on a network.
B. It is used to define which parts of the IP address are allocated to host addresses and network prefixes.
C. It is used to hide subnets from external networks by masking the subnets with NAT.
D. It is used to differentiate a network as a classful network or a classless network.

70-487 pdf 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 60
Which configuration causes RIP-learned routes to be advertised to other RIP neighbors?
A. set protocol rip no-passive
B. top edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol rip
set term 1 then accept
top set protocols rip group internal export demo
C. set protocols rip advertise in-out
D. top edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from active routes
set term 1 then accept
top set protocols rip group internal export demo
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 61
What is the default import routing policy for OSPF?
A. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.3 routing table.
B. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table.
C. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table.
D. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table.
70-487 vce 

Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 62
Which two characteristics describe the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)
A. limited error checking
B. defined timers
C. no recovery mechanisms
D. three-way handshake
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 63
How do you ping from configuration mode?
A. [edit interfaces]
[email protected]# run ping 1.1.1.1
B. [edit interfaces]
[email protected]# ping 1.1.1.1
C. [edit interfaces]
[email protected]# up ping 1.1.1.1
D. [edit interfaces]
[email protected]# exit ping 1.1.1.1
70-487 exam 

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 64
Which statement is true regarding the password-recovery process?
A. You must have a console connection.
B. You cannot set the console port to an insecure mode.
C. You must press the Enter key so that you can boot into single-user mode.
D. When prompted to enter the full pathname of the shell, you must press the Enter key.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 65
You are at the top of the hierarchy and must configure OSPF on interface so-0/0/0 unit 100. Which two achieve this result? (Choose two.)
A. set protocols
set ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100
B. set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C. edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D. edit protocols ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100
70-487 dumps 

Correct Answer: BD

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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-743 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)

QUESTION 36
Examine the figure given below: Which path is considered the critical path?
A. ACDFJ
B. ACGIJ
C. ABEFJ
D. ABDFJ
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical path is the path in the project network diagram with the longest duration. In project management, a critical path is the sequence of project network activities which add up to the longest overall duration. This determines the shortest time possible to complete the project. Any delay of an activity on the critical path directly impacts the planned project completion date (i.e. there is no float on the critical path). In this instance path ACGIJ is the longest as it takes 23 days. Answer options C and D are incorrect. These paths take 13 days. Answer option A is incorrect. This path only takes 19 days.

QUESTION 37
Winnie is the project manager for her company. She has been recording the actual durations of the project work to determine the actual progress of her project. Winnie needs to generate an updated project schedule based on project performance. She is using the supporting schedule data, manual scheduling methods, and her project management software to perform schedule network analysis. What other tool Winnie can use to help and generate an updated project schedule?
A. Critical path method
B. Schedule management plan
C. Scheduling tool
D. Critical chain method
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The scheduling tool is the only other tool that can help Winnie to create an updated project schedule. The scheduling tool is used in combination with manual methods or further project management software to carry out the schedule network analysis to produce an updated project schedule. Answer option A is incorrect. The critical path method can be analyzed, but it is a part of the project management information system. In addition, the critical path is not better or worse than the critical chain method so by having both
answers among the choices both answers are cancelled. Answer option D is incorrect. The critical chain method can be analyzed, but it is the part of the project management information system. In addition, the critical path is not better or worse than the critical path method so by having both answers among the choices both answers are cancelled. Answer option B is incorrect. The schedule management plan may need to be referenced to create a new project schedule, but it is not a tool that Winnie can use.

QUESTION 38
You are the project manager of the NHQ project. Your project has a budget of $1,258,456 and is scheduled to last for three years. Your project is currently forty percent complete though it should be forty five percent complete. In order to reach this point of the project, you have spent $525,000. Management needs a performance report regarding the NHQ project. Management is concerned that this project will be over budget upon completion. What is the estimate at completion for this project that you will need to report to management?
A. -$62,922.80
B. $1,312,504
C. $1,525,000
D. $787,504
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The estimate at completion can be calculated by dividing the budget at completion by the cost performance index. Here, CPI =EV/AC=(0.40*1,258,456)/525000 = 0.95882 EAC = BAC/CPI = 1,258456/0.95882 = 1,312,504 What is Estimate at Completion (EAC)? Estimate at Completion (EAC) is a field that displays the final cost of the project including the actual costs and the forecast of remaining costs based on the cost performance index (CPI) so far. The formula used to calculate this estimate is as follows: ACWP+(BAC-BCWP)/CPI Answer option D is incorrect. $787,504 is the estimate to complete. Answer option A is incorrect. -$62,922.80 is the schedule variance. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid calculation for this question.

QUESTION 39
John works as the project manager for Honeywell Inc. He is involved in the periodic collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress. Which of the following techniques is used in generating performance reports?
A. Work performance information
B. Change requests
C. Work performance measurements
D. Forecasting method
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Forecasting method is a technique used in generating performance reports. Forecasting is the process of estimating or predicting in unknown situations. Forecasting is about predicting the future as accurately as possible with the help of all the information available, including historical data and knowledge of any future events that might impact forecasts. The forecasting methods are categorized as follows: Time series method: It uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes. Causal/ econometric method: This forecasting method is based on the assumption that it is possible to identify some factors that might influence the variable that is being forecasted. If the causes are understood, projections of the influencing variables can be made and used in the forecast. Judgmental method: Judgmental forecasting methods incorporate intuitive judgments, opinions, and subjective probability estimates. Other methods: Other methods may include probabilistic forecasting, simulation, and ensemble forecasting. It is one of the tools and techniques of the report performance process. Answer option A is incorrect. Work performance information is the data gathered on the status of the project schedule activities that are performed to accomplish the project work. This data is collected as part of the Direct and Manage Project Execution processes. WPI includes the following: Deliverables status Schedule Progress Costs incurred It is used as an input in generating the report performance process. Answer option C is incorrect. Work performance measurements are created from the work performance information. WPMs are an output of Control schedule, Control cost, and Control scope processes, which
are monitoring and controlling processes. WPMs consist of planned versus actual performance indicators with respect to scope, schedule, and cost. They are documented and communicated to the stakeholders and are used to make project activity metrics, such as the following: Planned vs. Actual Technical performance and Scope performance Planned vs. Actual Schedule performance Planned vs. Actual Cost performance They are used as an input in generating the report performance process. Answer option B is
  incorrect. Change requests are requests to expand or reduce the project scope, modify policies, processes, plans, or procedures, modify costs or budgets or revise schedules. These requests for a change can be direct or indirect, externally or internally initiated, and legally or contractually imposed or optional. A Project Manager needs to ensure that only formally documented requested changes are processed and only approved change requests are implemented. It is an output of the report performance process.

QUESTION 40
Which of the following are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Procurement document
B. Contract
C. Business case
D. Project statement of work
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Develop Project Charter process documents the formal authorization of a project or a phase. It also documents initial requirements that satisfy the stakeholder’s needs and expectations. It is used to validate the decisions made during the previous iteration of the Develop Project Charter process. The various inputs of this process are as follows: Project statement of work Business case
Contract Enterprise environmental factors Organizational process assets The output of the Develop project Charter process is as follows: Project charter Answer option A is incorrect. Procurement document is the input of the Identify Stakeholders process.

QUESTION 41
Beth is the project manager for the NHQ project. This project deals with fiber optic cabling in her organizational campus. Tim is the electrical engineer for her company and is the only internal resource that can complete several of the project activities that deal with the fiber optic cables. Because Tim is a highly skilled resource, he is already scheduled on several projects within the organization and is not available when Beth needs him to complete some of the project activities. This is an example of which term?
A. Resource calendar conflict
B. Matrix network
C. Organizational process assets
D. Activity resource requirements
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the activities in Beth’s project require Tim and his skills. This is an example of an activity resource requirement. A resource constraint would also have been an acceptable answer. Answer option B is incorrect. This may be a matrix organization, but matrix network is not a valid project management term. Answer option C is incorrect. Organizational process assets are things that have been created to help assist the management of the project. Answer option A is incorrect. A resource calendar conflict is not a valid project management term.

QUESTION 42
John works as a Project Manager for Blue Well Inc. He is measuring cost efficiency of his project. The key values are provided in the table below:  What is the cost performance index (CPI) of the project at the current point of time?
A. 0.96
B. 1.082
C. 0.833
D. 1.0625
70-743 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the question, you are required to calculate the cost performance index (CPI) of the project. Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. The CPI is calculated based on the following formula: CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target. Here, CPI is as follows: CPI = EV / AV = 425/510 = 0.833 As the CPI (0.833) is less than 1, it shows that the schedule performance is below expectation. What is BCWP (or EV)? Budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP) or Earned Value (EV) is the value of completed work. It is the budgeted amount for the work actually completed on the schedule activity during a given time period. What is BCWS (or PV)? Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) or Planned Value (PV) is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work to be accomplished for a schedule activity or Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) component. What is ACWP (or AC)? Actual cost of work performed (ACWP) or Actual Cost (AC) is the total costs actually incurred and recorded in accomplishing work performed during a given time period for a schedule activity. It is the cost of the work to date, including direct and indirect costs. AC is money that has actually been expended to date.

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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-414 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)
QUESTION NO:3.You need to recommend a storage solution for the App1 VHDs. The solution must minimize downtime if a Hyper-V host fails. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
B. A clustered file server of the File Server for scale-out application data type
C. A clustered file server of the File Server for general use type
D. A Distributed File System (DFS) namespace
70-414 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO:4.You need to recommend a solution that meets the notification requirements. Which System Center 2012 components should you include in the recommendation?
A. Service Manager, Orchestrator and App Controller
B. Configuration Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
C. App Controller, Configuration Manager and Operations Manager
D. Operations Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
Answer: D
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO:5.You are evaluating the deployment of a multi-site Hyper-V failover cluster in the Miami office and the Seattle office to host App2. You need to identify which changes must be made to support the use of the multi-site cluster. Which changes should you identify?
A. Configure all of the virtual machines to use dynamic memory. Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated folder.

B. Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated folder. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices.
C. Purchase a storage solution that replicates the virtual machines. Configure all of the virtual machines to use dynamic memory.
D. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices. Purchase a storage solution that replicates the virtual machines.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO:6.You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO:7.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements. Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an SMB share. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-414 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO:8.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements. Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an NFS share. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
QUESTION NO:9.In adatum.com, you install and configure a server that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role and all of the AD FS role services installed. You need to recommend which AD FS configurations must be performed m adatum.com to meet the security requirements. Which configurations should you recommend before creating a trust policy?
A. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
B. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the server authentication certificate from Trey Research.
C. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the server authentication certificate from Trey Research.
D. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
70-414 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps
70-414 dumps
QUESTION NO: 10
The resource replication mechanism can encompass a hypervisor that can support the multitenancy cloud characteristic. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following characteristics of cloud-based IT resources are difficult to fully test on Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) implementations? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. availability
B. confidentiality
C. reliability
D. performance
70-414 exam Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following statements are true about the state management database mechanism? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Software programs can off-load state data to a state management database in order to reduce the amount of runtime memory they consume.
B. The use of a state management database can improve scalability.
C. State management databases rely on the use of virtualization software.
D. The use of state management databases requires a ready-made environment.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 13
With cloud storage, consumers only pay for the actual storage they use. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-414 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following security mechanisms enables one cloud service consumer to be authenticated by a security broker, so that its security context is persisted when accessing other cloud services? Select the correct answer.
A. digital certificates
B. certificate authority
C. single sign-on
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
We exported data from our on-premise relational database to a cloud-based non-relational database. After the export, we noticed that the size of the cloud-based database was significantly larger than our on-premise database. What is the likely reason that the database size increased? Select the correct answer.
A. The transmission of the data over a wide area network resulted inthe accumulation of additionalmeta data from HTTP headers that was stored in the non-relational database, resulting in the increase in data received by the cloud.
B. The data in the relational database was normalized and became denormalized after being exported into a non-relational database.
C. In order to support higher levels of scalability, the cloud-based database is required to add state data to the non-relational data it stores. This state data is used to synchronize instances of the database tables during runtime usage, but also increases the size of the overall database.
D. All of the above.
70-414 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
The attack occurs when access is granted to an attacker erroneously or too broadly, resulting in the attacker gaining access to IT resources that are normally protected.
Select the correct answer.
A. denial of service
B. malicious intermediary
C. insufficient authorization
D. virtualization
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
The is a service agent that can measure the usage of a cloud-based IT resource by a cloud consumer for billing purposes. Select the correct answer.
A. automated scaling listener
B. pay-for-use monitor
C. multi-device broker
D. resource replicator
70-414 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
A virtual server is being attacked by a malicious cloud service consumer that is generating increased usage loads upon the underlying physical server. As a result, other virtual servers being hosted by the physical server are becoming unavailable to other cloud service consumers. This kind of attack is known as: . Select the correct answer.
A. denial of service
B. overlapping trust boundary
C. insufficient authorization
D. buffer overrun
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 19
represents the ability of a cloud platform to keep track of the usage of its IT resources by cloud consumers, and is therefore directly related to the mechanism. Select the correct answer.
A. Replicated usage, cloud monitor
B. Measured usage, pay-for-use monitor
C. Agent usage, on-premise monitor
D. None of the above.
70-414 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
A is a mechanism used to temporarily persist certain types of data as an alternative to caching the data in memory. Select the correct answer.
A. resource replicator
B. state management database
C. failover system
D. multi-device broker
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the ubiquitous access cloud characteristic? Select the correct answer.
A. failover System
B. multi-device broker
C. ready-made environment
D. virtual server
70-414 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the elasticity cloud characteristic? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. virtual server
B. automated scaling listener
C. resource replication
D. pay-for-use monitor
Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the multitenancy cloud characteristic? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. automated scaling listener
B. failover system
C. resource replication
D. virtual server
70-414 pdf 
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 24
Performance testing on Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) implementations is almost always carried out with a white box testing approach that does not involve the use of automated testing software.
Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following can be the result of a successful malicious intermediary attack? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The confidentiality of a message is comprised.
B. The integrity of a message is comprised.
C. Private or sensitive data within a message is accessed by the attacker.
D. Harmful data is inserted into a message.
70-414 vce 
Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 26
is a form of dynamic routing whereby a cloud service consumer’s request is redirected to one of several redundant IT resources located on different clouds. Select the correct answer.
A. Cloud balancing
B. Cloud bursting
C. Replication leveling
D. Virtual state caching
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following are data storage levels used by cloud-based storage mechanisms? Select the correct answer.
A. dataset
B. files
C. block
D. All of the above.
70-414 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
It is possible to make ten virtual servers available via two physical servers. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 29
The cloud service consumer sends its authentication to the security broker. After successful authentication, the security broker responds with an authentication with which the cloud service consumer can access other cloud services. This describes how the security mechanism works. Select the correct answer.
A. token, acknowledgement certificate, certificate authority
B. credentials, token, single sign-on
C. certificate, message, certificate authority
D. certificate, key, single sign-on
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following technologies can be used to build cloud services? Select the correct answer.
A. Web services
B. REST services
C. components
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following are classified as access-oriented threats? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. denial of service
B. malicious intermediary
C. overlapping trust boundary
D. virtualization attack
70-414 pdf 
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 32
A virtual server is a form of software that emulates a(n)
computer. Select the correct answer.
A. virtual monitoring, on-premise
B. virtual monitoring, cloud-based
C. virtualization, physical
D. virtualization, logical
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Information that is encrypted is referred to as . Select the correct answer.
A. cleartext
B. ciphertext
C. plaintext
D. secret text
70-414 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
A is a pre-defined cloud-based platform comprised of a set of already installed IT resources that can be used and customized by a cloud consumer. Select the correct answer.
A. failover system
B. pay-for-use monitor
C. ready-made environment
D. multi-device broker
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the measured usage cloud characteristic? Select the correct answer.
A. automated scaling listener
B. pay-for-use monitor
C. resource replication
D. state management database
70-414 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following are established industry standards used with SOAP-based Web services? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. WADL/JSON
B. SOAP
C. XML Schema
D. WSDL
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 37
White box testing is commonly used with which of the following cloud delivery models? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
C. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
D. Replicated Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
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Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 38
When using the single sign-on security mechanism, a cloud service consumer is limited to being authenticated by a single cloud service. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)
QUESTION 30
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com. All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover cluster. Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS) name space folder target. After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to ABC AppData is highly available. You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication. Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
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The Branch site contains a perimeter network. For security reasons, client computers in the perimeter network can communicate with client computers in the Branch site only. You plan to deploy a new RODC to the perimeter network in the Branch site. You need to ensure that the new RODC will be able to replicate from DC10. What should you do first on DC10?
A. Run dcpromo and specify the /createdcaccount parameter.
B. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.

C. Run the Add-ADDSReadOnlyDomainControllerAccount cmdlet.
D. Enable the Bridge all site links setting.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. One of the domain controllers is named DC1. The DNS zone for the contoso.com zone is Active Directory-integrated and has the default settings.
A server named Server1 is a DNS server that runs a UNIX-based operating system. You plan to use Server1 as a secondary DNS server for the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that Server1 can host a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerForwarder cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerSetting cmdlet and specify DC1 as a target.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
D. From DNS Manager, modify the Advanced settings of DC1.
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which three statements are true about the TIBCO BusinessEvents Monitoring and Management
A. TIBCO Hawk is required for monitoring of machine level metrics.
B. COPSSH is required for monitoring of machine level metrics.
C. Memory-based object management is supported.
D. Cache-based object management is required.
E. Monitored agents and nodes must belong to the same cluster.
F. Monitored agents and nodes can belong to different clusters.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which resource type describes a SOAP web service exposed from TIBCO BusinessEvents?
A. SOAP event definition
B. XSDfile
C. WSDLfile
D. HTTP channel
70-412 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What are three valid SimpleEvent attributes? (Choose three.)
A. @id
B. @ttl
C. @destination
D. @payload
E. @closure
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which two functions does the TIBCO BusinessEvents Studio Tools utility provide? (Choose two.)
A. Validates BE studio projects
B. Builds enterprise archives
C. Imports existing TIBCO BusinessEvents 4.x projects
D. Executes rule test suites
70-412 vce Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
What are three TIBCO BusinessEvents 5 modeling types? (Choose three.)
A. RuleSet Models
B. Rule Models
C. Workflow Models
D. Event Models
E. Process Models
F. State Models
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which three statements are true about database concepts? (Choose three.)
A. Database constraints are interpreted as referenced or contained concepts.
B. Database views can be imported as database concepts.
C. Database concepts support history tracking.
D. Database views can be imported as Domain Models.
E. Database columns can be imported as Domain Models.
70-412 exam Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which two statements are true about a Fault Tolerant agent in standby mode? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains a passive RETE network.
B. It listens to events from channels.
C. It does not execute startup rule functions.
D. It updates working memory.
E. It reads and writes to cache.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which three types of Query windows use a condition to limit the lifecycle of entities in the window? (Choose three.)
A. Tumbling
B. Implicit
C. Rolling
D. Time
E. Sliding
F. Boundary
70-412 dumps Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Given the following two identical rules matching the criteria:
– RuleA with priority 3
– RuleB with priority 5
Which two statements are true about RTC execution? (Choose two.)
A. RuleB may not be triggered.
B. RuleA may not be triggered.
C. The agenda will be recomputed after the first rule’s actions finish.
D. The rules’ actions may be executed in parallel
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
What are two valid approaches for implementing a TIBCO BusinessEvents web service? (Choose two.)
A. Top-down
B. Inside-out
C. Upside-down
D. Bottom-up
70-412 pdf Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
What are three functions of be-engine.exe? (Choose three.)
A. Installs TIBCO BusinessEvents application as a service
B. Adds a new Processing Unit to CDD
C. Starts debugger service for remote debugging
D. Generates new EAR files
E. Starts a Processing Unit from CDD
F. Validates a CDD file
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What are two valid database write strategies when backing store is used to store TIBCO BusinessEvents objects? (Choose two.)
A. Write-behind
B. Write-ahead
C. Cache-aside
D. Sync-write
70-412 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Question No: 46 What Implementation & Migration Extension concept is used to model the outcome of an analysis of the differences between two architectural states?
A. Transition
B. Gap
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
Answer: B
The Application Co-operation viewpoint describes the relationships between application components in terms of the information flows between them, or in terms of the services they offer and use.
Question No: 47 Which of the following concepts cannot be used in an Application Co-operation view?
A. Business object
B. Location
C. Application interface
D. Data object
70-412  exam Answer: A
All ArchiSurance divisions use a Claims Adjudication Process specific to their lines of business to determine whether a claim should be paid as well as the payment amount. Consider the following diagram:
Question No: 48 – (Topic 1) Which of the following statements is expressed by the diagram?
A. The Claims Adjudication Process realizes the Claim File
B. Claims are filed after the Claims Adjudication process is complete
C. The Claims Adjudication team relies on the Claim File to get its work done
D. The Claims Adjudication process accesses the Claim File
Answer: D
Question No: 49 – (Topic 1)
The ArchiMate modeling language can be used to describe different types of architecture and the relationships between them. Which of the following lists the three main layers of the ArchiMate language?
A. Business, Information, and Application
B. Application, Data, and Technology
C. Business, Application, and Technology
D. Business, Integration, and Infrastructure
70-412 dumps Answer: C
Maya has been working for ArchiSurance for five years. The following diagram describes her responsibilities:
Question No: 50 – (Topic 1) Which of the following answers best interprets the diagram?
A. Maya works with the Senior Underwriter who works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
B. Maya supervises a Senior Underwriter who works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
C. In her Senior Underwriter role, Maya supervises separate teams that work directly on complex cases and review simple ones
D. In her Senior Underwriter role, Maya works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
Answer: D
Consider the following diagram:
Question No: 51 – (Topic 1) What does the diagram express about the structure of the Underwriting Application?
A. The Underwriting Application groups together a number of modules that are either free standing or part of other applications
B. The Underwriting Application is composed of three application components
C. The Underwriting Application invokes three other modules
D. The Underwriting Application performs three functions
70-412 pdf Answer: B
Question No: 52 – (Topic 1) Consider the following entities commonly found in a typical large organization:
1. A chief executive
2. A software application for financial management
3. A human resources department
4. Server hardware that is used to host business applications
What is the single ArchiMate aspect in the ArchiMate Framework that describes all these entities?
A. Passive structure
B. Business structure
C. Behavior
D. Active structure
Answer: D
Question No: 53 – (Topic 1) Which standard ArchiMate viewpoint focuses on the (internal) structure of a company, a department, or a network of companies, and identifies authorities and responsibilities?
A. Actor Co-operation viewpoint
B. Organizational viewpoint
C. Business Function viewpoint
D. Business Process Co-operation viewpoint
70-412 vce Answer: B
Question No: 54  – (Topic 1)  Which ArchiMate concept describes the behavior of a business collaboration?
A. A business interaction
B. A business event
C. A business process
D. A business service
Answer: A
Question No: 55 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram using the Implementation and Migration extension: Which of the following statements correctly describes the concepts shown in the diagram?
A. Business processes
B. Plateau and deliverables
C. Project components
D. Work packages
70-412 exam Answer: D
Consider the following diagram, which shows a relationship between two business objects:
Question No: 56  All of the systems in a VCS cluster have two private heartbeat links and are connected to the public network, but the cluster does not have any available shared disks. Which addition would DECREASE the chances of the cluster from entering jeopardy?
A. disk heartbeats
B. a service group heartbeat
C. a low priority heartbeat
D. multiplexed heartbeats
Answer: C
Question No: 57 What is the minimum number of heartbeat links that are required to startup VCS without immediately entering jeopardy?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-412 dumps Answer: B
Question No: 58 Consider the following output of a gabconfig a command: On how many private network links is GAB properly communicating on?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question No: 59 Is it possible for two separate VCS clusters to share a common private heartbeat network assuming NO shared disk for disk-based heartbeats is available?
A. not possible: each cluster must always use a separate heartbeat network
B. not possible: requires shared disk heartbeats between the clusters
C. possible: assign different LLT cluster IDs to each of the clusters
D. possible: ensure that all LLT node IDs are unique across the clusters
70-412 pdf Answer: C
Question No: 60 Which command is used to verify that GAB is active on a cluster system?
A. gabstat -v
B. gabstat -a
C. gabconfig -v
D. gabconfig -a
Answer: D
Question No: 61 The VCS notifier was configured during VCS installation. Which resource type will be added to the VCS configuration in order to start the notification process?
A. Process
B. Notifier
C. NotifierMngr
D. Application
70-412 vce Answer: C
Question No: 62 How many systems in the cluster can the NotifierMngr run on at one time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. an unlimited number
Answer: A
Question No: 63 During VCS installation, the VCS notifier is to be configured to send messages to the SNMP console named snmpserv. Which two additional pieces of information are needed to configure the notifier for SNMP? (Choose two.)
A. the location of the SNMP VCS MIB
B. the port number to use on the console
C. the email address of the user to whom to send traps
D. severity of messages to send to the console
E. the username on the system in which to send the messages
70-412 exam Answer: BD
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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-331 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)
QUESTION 173
You need to ensure that corporate search guidelines are followed. What rule should you create? (To answer, select the appropriate option from each drop-down list in the answer area.)
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QUESTION 174
You need to resolve the authentication issue that occurs in the SharePoint environment. What should you do?
A. Deploy the Secure Store Service.
B. Use classic mode authentication and set the authentication type to NTLM.
C. Use the Distributed Cache service.
D. Use classic mode authentication and set the authentication type to Kerberos.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 175
You need to implement Office 365 authentication. What should you do?
A. Create a two-way trust between proseware.com and adatum.com.

B. Deploy an AD FS proxy for the proseware.com domain.
C. Create an AD DS domain named proseware.com and join the AD FS servers to the proseware.com domain.
D. Add adatum.com and proseware.com as Office 365 SSO domains and use the SupportMultipleDomain parameter.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 176
You need to ensure that profile information about contractors and employees is available in search results. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 177
You need to provide access to the Corporate Projects site collection to remote internal users. Which authentication mode and site collection URL should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate answer choices to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 178
In an existing deployment, all connections appear to be unoptimized. The Current Connections page lists the connections as pass-through. The logs indicate admission control “Jan 19 18:44:56 client sport[343]: [admission_control.WARN] Pausing intercept.” What are some possible ways to alleviate the problem? (Select 2)
A. Verify that there is no SMB Signing on the server
B. Ensure that there are no Opportunistic Lock issues
C. Disable or reduce the connection timeout of MAPI prepopulation
D. Investigate if there is a virus on a client trying to propagate itself
E. Validate that NFS v2 broadcasts are enabled
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 179
You need to take a full packet trace from the WAN interface of a Steelhead appliance to send into technical support. Which of the following commands will achieve this assuming typical Ethernet MTU? (Select 2)
A. tcpdump i wan0_0 s 0 w filename
B. tcpdump i wan0_0 s 1500 w filename
C. tcpdump I wan0_0 w filename
D. tcpdump i wan0_0 w filename
E. tcpdump I wan0_0 s 1500 w filename
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 180
Which of the following commands would allow you to generate a system dump from the CLI?
A. sysdump
B. dump generate
C. debug generate dump
D. sysdump generate dump
E. dump generate w filename
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 181
The Optimization service has been disabled on a Steelhead appliance. Which of the following events occur as a result?
A. LAN and WAN interfaces stop intercepting
B. Primary interface becomes disabled
C. AUX interface becomes disabled
D. The Steelhead appliance reboots
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 182
Which section of the Steelhead appliance Management Console can help identify speed/duplex errors? (Select 2)
A. View Logs
B. Current Connections

C. Alarm Status
D. Interface Statistics
E. Monitored Ports
70-331 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 183
A customer with a new physical in-path installation decides to turn on the optimization service during lunch time on a working day. This is done so that he can see if the users perceive any performance improvement. When starting the optimization service, he does not enable the in- path kickoff option. Assuming there were several already active connections when he starts the optimization service, how will the Steelhead appliances handle these existing connections?
A. The Steelhead appliance will optimize all connections, including pre-existing
B. The Steelhead appliance will pass-through all pre-existing connections, leaving them un- optimized
C. The Steelhead appliance will reset all pre-existing connections, thus automatically changing their optimization status from un-optimized to optimized
D. The Steelhead appliance will list the connections as “pre-existing” on the Current Connections page
E. Both B and D
F. Both C and D
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 184
You need to perform a tcpdump of traffic entering the Steelhead appliance’s lan0_0 interface. Which of the following demonstrate the proper command format to perform the tcpdump and capture to a file?
A. tcpdump p lan0_0 S 300 w lancap.cap
B. tcpdump i lan0_0 s 300 w lancap.cap
C. tcpdump i lan0_0
D. tcpdump I lan0_0 s 300
E. tcpdump i lan0_0 -3 300 r lancap.cap
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 185
In a new physical in-path deployment, you realize that a Steelhead appliance at one of your branch offices is optimizing connections from other sites, however, no connections initiated from that branch office are being optimized. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Duplex mismatch
B. Bilateral Opportunistic Lock failure
C. Policy-based routing incorrectly configured
D. Reversed WAN and LAN cabling
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
When troubleshooting a datastore wrapping alarm with 1 day wrapping notification configured, which of the following should be examined? (Select 2)
A. If the unit was mis-sized
B. If stream based encrypted traffic is being sent across the link as optimized
C. If your fixed-target rules are pointing to the correct Steelhead appliance
D. If Connection Forwarding was properly configured
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 187
What should you do when you receive the following message?
A. Nothing. This is a warning message which means that the Steelhead appliance is resetting an internal state regarding this connection and it should not affect user performance.
B. Switch off the Steelhead appliance
C. Create a specific pass-through rule to bypass the above source and destination hosts
D. Reload the Steelhead appliance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 188
What should you do when you receive the following message? [intercept.NOTICE] sending kickoff RST:
10.35.178.41:1169 -> 10.110.141.30:1031.
A. Nothing. This is just a notice message.
B. Verify whether the “Reset Existing Client Connections on Start Up” option is checked and uncheck it
C. Switch off the Steelhead appliance
D. Create a specific pass-through rule to bypass the above source and destination hosts
E. Restart the Steelhead appliance
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit.
In the accompanying exhibit, SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize FTP and HTTP sessions between Client41 and the respective application hosts Server31 and Server32. However, optimization does not happen for
  Client42 and these application hosts. A quick check on SH3 and SH4 registers neither optimized nor pass through traffic from Client42. Client42 is able to ping Client41 and the in-path address of SH4. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto-discovery mode. What is the likely cause?
A. The default gateway of Client41 is configured wrong
B. The default gateway of Client42 is configured wrong
C. The default gateway of SH3 is configured wrong
D. The default gateway of SH4 is configured wrong
E. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit.
SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize FTP and HTTP sessions between Client41 and the respective application hosts Server31 and Server32. However, optimization seems to be a problem for Client42 and these application hosts. A quick check on SH3 and SH4 registers neither optimized nor pass-through traffic from Client42. Client42 is able to ping to both Server31 and Server32. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto discovery mode. What is the likely cause?
A. The default gateway of Client41 is configured wrong
B. The default gateway of Client42 is configured wrong
C. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies TCP traffic from Client42
D. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
70-331 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit.
SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize HTTP sessions from Client41 to application host Server31. However, Client41 receives a failure messagE. “ftp connect: Unknown error number” while trying to connect Server32. The same applies to Client42. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto- discovery mode. Client41 and Client42 are able to ping Server32. What is the most likely cause of this failure?
A. The network interface card (NIC) at Server32 is down
B. The FTP service running in Server32 is down
C. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies IP traffic from Client41 and Client42
D. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies FTP control traffic from Client41 and Client42
E. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit.
A connection times out when Client41 and Client42 attempt to either establish an HTTP session to Server31 or an FTP connection to Server32 after not connecting to them for some time. The very next attempt to connect to these services done immediately after the failure seems to work correctly. The clients are able to ping both servers and no access-lists are configured on the routers. SH3 uses the IP address of R3f0 as its default gateway. Upon powering off SH3 and SH4, the problem goes away even for first connection and everything works normally (even after not connecting for extended periods of time). Which of the following are likely to correct this problem?
A. Both servers have faulty network interface cards and should be replaced
B. Both the HTTP service running in Server31 and the FTP service running in Server32 are down and should be restarted
C. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at SH3
D. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at R3
E. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at L3 Switch
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 1
You need to recommend a Windows Server 2008 R2 server configuration that meets the following requirements:
Supports the installation of Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Provides redundancy for SQL services if a single server fails What should you recommend?
A. Install a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
B. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard on two servers. Configure Network Load Balancing on the two servers.
C. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure Network Load Balancing on the two servers.
D. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Fail Over Clustering, which is available on the Enterprise edition (not on standard) will provide fail over as required.
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition is the version of the operating system targeted at large businesses. Plan to deploy this version of Windows 2008 on servers that will run applications such as SQL Server 2008 Enterprise Edition and Exchange Server 2007. These products require the extra processing power and RAM that Enterprise Edition supports. When planning deployments, consider Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition in situations that require the following technologies unavailable in Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition:
Failover Clustering I-ail over clustering is a technology that allows another server to continue to service client requests in the event that the original server fails. Clustering is covered in more detail in Chapter 11. “Clustering and High Availability.” You deploy failover clustering on mission critical servers to ensure that important resources are available even if a server hosting those resources fails.

QUESTION NO: 2
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. Your main office has an Internet connection. Your company plans to open a branch office. The branch office will connect to the main office by using a WAN link. The WAN link will have limited bandwidth. The branch office will not have access to the Internet. The branch office will contain 30 Windows Server 2008 R2 servers. You need to plan the deployment of the servers in the branch office.
The deployment must meet the following requirements:
Installations must be automated.
Computers must be automatically activated.
Network traffic between the offices must be minimized.
What should you include in your plan?
A. In the branch office, implement Key Management Service (KMS), a DHCP server, and Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
B. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent Activation on the servers. In the main office, implement a DHCP server and Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
C. In the main office, implement Windows Deployment Services (WDS). In the branch office, implement a DHCP server and implement the Key Management Service (KMS).
D. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent Activation on the servers. In the main office, implement a DHCP server. In the branch office, implement Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
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Answer: A
Explanation:
The key here is that bandwidth from the branch to the main office is limited and there is no direct link to MS. WDS and Product Activation. Although product activation does not need to occur during the actual installation process, administrators considering using WDS to automate deployment should also consider using volume activation to automate activation. Volume activation provides a simple centralized method that systems administrators can use for the activation of large numbers of deployed servers. Volume activation allows for two types of keys and three methods of activation. The key types are the Multiple Activation Key (MAK) and the Key Management Services (KMS) key. Multiple Activation Keys allow activation of a specific number of computers. Each successful activation depletes the activation pool. For example, a MAK key that has 100 activations allows for the activation of 100 computers. The Multiple Activation Key can use the MAK Proxy Activation and the MAK Independent Activation activation methods. MAK Proxy Activation uses a centralized activation request on behalf of multiple products using a single connection to Microsoft’s activation
servers. MAK Independent Activation requires that each computer activates individually against Microsoft’s activation servers. The Branch office has no internet connection, so MAK is not the solution. KMS requires at least 25 computers connecting before activation can occur, and activation must be renewed by reconnecting to the KMS server every 180 days. You can use KMS and MAK in conjunction with one another. The number of computers, how often they connect to the network, and whether there is Internet connectivity determines which solution you should deploy. You should deploy MAK if substantial numbers of computers do not connect to the network for more than 180 days. If there is no Internet connectivity and more than 25 computers, you should deploy KMS. If there is no Internet connectivity and less than 25 computers, you will need to use MAK and activate each system over the telephone.
QUESTION NO: 3
Your network contains a Webbased Application that runs on Windows Server 2003. You plan to migrate the Webbased Application to Windows Server 2008 R2. You need to recommend a server configuration to support the Webbased Application.
The server configuration must meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the Application is available to all users if a single server fails
Support the installation of .NET Applications
Minimize software costs
What should you recommend?
A. Install the Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard on two servers. Configure the servers in a Network Load Balancing cluster.
B. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Web on two servers. Configure the servers in a Network Load Balancing cluster.
C. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
D. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Web Edition meets the requirements
Windows Web Server 2008 R2
Windows Web Server 2008 R2 is designed to function specifically as a Web application server. Other roles, such as Windows Deployment Server and Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), are not supported on Windows Web Server 2008 R2. You deploy this server role either on a screened subnet to support a website viewable to external hosts or as an intranet server. As appropriate given its stripped-down role, Windows Web Server 2008 R2 does not support the high-powered hardware configurations that other editions of Windows Server 2008 R2 do. Windows Web Server 2008 R2 has the following properties: Supports a maximum of 32 GB of RAM and 4 sockets in symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) configuration You should plan to deploy Windows Web Server 2008 R2 in the Server Core configuration, which minimizes its attack surface, something that is very important on a server that interacts with hosts
external to your network environment. You should plan to deploy the full version of Windows Web Server 2008 R2 only if your organization’s web applications rely on features that are not available in the Server Core version of Windows Web Server 2008 R2. Unlike the Server Core version of Windows Web Server 2008, Windows Web Server 2008 R2 supports a greater amount of Internet
Information Services (IIS) functionality.
Configuring Windows Network Load Balancing
While DNS Round Robin is a simple way of distributing requests, Windows Server 2008 NLB is a much more robust form of providing high availability to applications. Using NLB, an administrator can configure multiple servers to operate as a single cluster and control the usage ot the cluster in near real-time.
Why Failover Cluster will not work.
Contrast DNS Round Robin and NLB with Failover Clustering, another availability technology in Windows Server 2008. Formerly known as server clustering, Failover Clustering creates a group of computers that all have access lo the same data store or disk resource or network share. The applicationsjunning on aJailoverCluster must be cluster-aware. Failover Clustering has had some changes since Windows Server 2003. Lesson 2 will cover these changes.
QUESTION NO: 4
Your company purchases 15 new 64bit servers as follows:
Five of the servers have a single processor.
Five of the servers have a single dual core processor.
Five of the servers have two quad core processors.
You plan to deploy Windows Server 2008 R2 on the new servers by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to recommend a WDS install image strategy that meets the following requirements:
Minimizes the number of install images
Supports the deployment of Windows Server 2008 R2
What should you recommend?
A. one install image file that contains three install images
B. one install image file that contains a single install image
C. two install image files that each contain a single install image
D. three install image files that each contain a single install image
70-646 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
You only need one image per processor type
Windows Deployment Services Images
Windows Deployment Services uses two different types of images: install images and boot images. Install images are the operating system images that will be deployed to Windows Server 2008 or Windows Vista client computers. A default installation image is located in the \Sources directory of the Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008 installation DVDs. If you are using WDS to deploy Windows Server 2008 to computers with different processor architectures, you will need to add separate installation images for each architecture to the WDS server. Architecture-specific images can be found on the architecture-specific installation media. For example, the Itanium
image is located on the Itanium installation media and the x64 default installation image is located on the x64 installation media. Although you can create custom images, you only need to have one image per processor architecture. For example, deploying Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition x64 to a computer with 1 x64 processor and to a computer with 8 x64 processors in SMP
configuration only requires access to the default x64 installation image. Practice exercise 2 at the end of this lesson covers the specifics ol adding a default installation image to a WDS server.
QUESTION NO: 5
Your network contains a single Active Directory site.You plan to deploy 1,000 new computers that will run Windows 7 Enterprise. The new computers have Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) network adapters.You need to plan the deployment of the new computers to meet the following requirements:
·Support 50 simultaneous installations of Windows 7
·Minimize the impact of network operations during the deployment of the new computers
·Minimize the amount of time required to install Windows 7 on the new computers
What should you include in your plan?
A. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role. Configure the IP Helper tables on all routers.
B. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role. Configure each WDS server by using native mode.
C. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role and the Transport Server feature. Configure the Transport Server to use a custom network profile.
D. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role and the Transport Server feature. Configure the Transport Server to use a static multicast address range.
70-646 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:

WDS Multicast Server
Updated: November 21, 2007
Applies To: Windows Server 2008
The multicast server deploys an image to a large number of client computers concurrently without overburdening the network. When you create a multicast transmission for an image, the data is sent over the network only once, which can drastically reduce the network bandwidth that is used.

This topic only applies to Windows Server 2008. If you have Windows Server 2008 R2, see Configuring Transport Server. You have two options when installing the Windows Deployment Services role in Windows Server 2008. You can install both the Deployment Server and Transport Server role services (which is the 
default) or you can install only the Transport Server role service. The second configuration is for advanced scenarios, such as environments without Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Domain Name System (DNS), or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP). You can configure Transport Server to enable you to boot from the network using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE) and Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP), a multicast server, or both. Note that Transport Server does not contain or support the Windows Deployment Services image store. Configure how to obtain IP addresses. If multiple servers are using multicast functionality on a network (Transport Server, Deployment Server, or another solution), it is important that each server is configured so that the multicast IP addresses do not collide. Otherwise, you may encounter excessive traffic when you enable multicasting. Note that each Windows Deployment Services server will have the same default range. To work around this issue, specify static ranges that do not overlap to ensure that each server is using a unique IP address, or configure each of the servers to obtain multicast addresses from a Multicast Address Dynamic Client Allocation Protocol (MADCAP) server. The server architectures are illustrated in the following diagram. The blue parts are installed with Transport Server and the Deployment Server. The grey parts are installed with the Deployment Server only. The yellow parts are not installed with either, but can be written using guidelines in the Windows SDK.
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23.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging. You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync. What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
070-347 exam Answer: D
24.DRAG DROP
Your company uses Office 365.You are planning a user-driven deployment of Office 365 ProPlus. You need to provide users with the minimum requirements for running Office 365 ProPlus. Which requirements should you provide? To answer, drag the appropriate requirements to the correct targets. Each requirement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company is deploying Office 365 ProPlus.
The company has the following deployment requirements:
– Office applications must be installed from a local network location by using a self-service model.
– Office application updates must not be deployed until they have been tested for compatibility.
– The installation of Office applications and updates must occur without user interaction.
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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26.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company’s environment includes Office 2007, Office 2010, Office 2013, Windows 7, and Windows 8.The company uses Office Telemetry. You need to collect Office version usage data for an upcoming migration to Office 365 ProPlus. What should you do?
A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Answer: A
27.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data. What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.

B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
070-347 pdf Answer: C
28.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently subscribed to Office 365 ProPlus. When performing a test deployment, you receive the following error message: “Windows cannot find ‘C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office 15 \clientX64\integratedOffice.exe’.Make sure you typed the name correctly, and then try again.” You need to successfully complete the test deployment. Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Manually remove the registry subkeys associated with Office 2013, and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
B. completely uninstall existing versions of Office 2013 and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
C. Download the Office 365 ProPlus package to a file share, and then deploy Office 365 ProPlus by using Group Policy.
D. Automate the installation of Office 365 ProPlus applications by using Microsoft System Center
Configuration Manager.
Answer: A, D
29.Which storage method will make data most accessible?
A. Optical disk
B. Magnetic Disk
C. Jukebox
D. Tape
070-347 vce Correct Answer: B
30.Which task is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data center object?
A. Determining which device ports have the highest rates of errors
B. Viewing a list of file systems that are nearly full
C. Monitoring the status of processes on the host
D. Listing the number of disks in all storage arrays
Correct Answer: B
31.Which event is known as a head crash?
A. Two R/W heads have touched each other
B. A read head and a write head have touched each other
C. A R/W head has touched the disk data area
D. Two adjacent disk platters have touched each other
E. SAN
070-347 exam Correct Answer: C
32.What is a disadvantage of array based remote replication?
A. Uses host CPU resources
B. Cannot manage log shipping
C. Limited to specific databases
D. Limited to specific operating systems
Correct Answer: B
33.What is a valid member of a zone in a SAN?
A. The IP address of a host
B. A Domain ID
C. The serial number of a storage array
D. A HBA WWPN
070-347 dumps Correct Answer: D
34.What failure does RAID technology guard against?
A. Host bus Adapter failures
B. Host failures
C. Switch Failure
D. Disk Failure

Correct Answer: D
35.What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination device?
A. Faster restore time
B. Random access
C. RAID Protection
D. Portability
070-347 pdf Correct Answer: D
36.Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit?
1. Read data is sent to the host
2. Host sends read request to storage system
3. Cache is searched, and data is found
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 3, 1, 2
C. 1, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 3
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 19
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands. You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
70-534 exam Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 20
You are designing an Azure web application. All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which
two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:

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QUESTION: 22
Which of the following interfaces found on an RFS4000 or RFS6000 Controller can be used to supply Power over Ethernet to directly attached APs?
A. Gigabyte Ethernet (GE)
B. Uplink (UP)
C. Management Ethernet (ME)
D. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
E. Express
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which of the following interfaces are recommended to connect an RFS4000 or RFS6000 to the local network?
A. Management Ethernet (ME)
B. Gigabyte Ethernet (GE)
C. Uplink (UP)
D. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
E. Express
70-534 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 24
In which of the following modes does an RFS controller using WiNG 5 operate (select TWO)?
A. Hub mode
B. Bridge mode
C. Switch mode
D. Router mode
E. Repeater mode
F. Controller mode
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 25
You are deploying a WiNG 5 system and need to visualize Layer 1 activity only. Which of the following tools would allow you to do this?
A. Protocol Analyzer
B. Spectrum Analyzer
C. WLAN Discovery tool
D. Predictive Site Survey tool
E. Manual Site Survey tool
70-534 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
You are monitoring a wireless client on a WLAN and are using a 2.4GHz radio to capture a wireless trace. When using the sniffer-redirect option on Motorola AP without off-channel scanning, how many simultaneous 20Mhz channels can be redirected by the AP?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 11
Answer: A
QUESTION: 27
Which of the following terms are used to describe Motorola AP-650s (select TWO)?
A. FatAP
B. DependentAP
C. Non-Site survivable AP
D. Site Survivable AP
E. Independent AP
70-534 vce Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 28
When mounting an antenna on a metal wall, what special considerations do you have to take into account regarding RF propagation (select TWO)?

A. Length of antenna cable
B. The type of antenna to be used
C. Type of screws to be used
D. The distance the antenna is from the wall
E. Mounting height of the antenna
Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following is the single biggest security vulnerability evident in the image below?
A. Use of no security on Visitor VLAN
B. Use of Pre-Shared Key on several WLANs
C. Use of Wired Equivalent Privacy on WLAN1g
D. Use of Temporal Key Integrity Protocol on WLAN1a
E. Use of Netgear and Motorola APs on the same RF bands
F. Use of Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol on several WLANs
70-534 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
You have configured Radio 2 (5 GHz) of an AP-650 to use 802.11n 20/40 MHz channels. Under the WLAN configuration settings you have selected WPA/WPA2- TKIP using a PSK. To test the connection you associate an 802.lln client laptop device but notice that the connection speed between the two 802.11n devices is limited to 54 Mbps. See Exhibit: B.3.2.06 at the bottom. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this condition?

A. PSK is limited to 54 Mbps.
B. 802.11 Protection Mechanisms are in effect.
C. WPA/WPA2-TKIP encryption is limited to 54 Mbps.
D. Channels in the 5 GHz band are limited to 802.11a rates of 54 Mbps.
E. More wireless client devices are using 802.11a than are using 802.lln tipping the
AP into legacy compatibility mode.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 31
Wi-Fi radios can generally operate in the presence of transmissions from neighboring radios, as long as the neighboring signal strengths are at -85 dBm or lower. In Exhibit 3.3.10 shown below, ESSIDs Tin, Silver, Chrome, and Visitors are virtual APs assigned to a single Motorola AP-650 radio. Which of the neighboring ESSIDs are most likely to cause co-channel interference to this AP?

A. Moto
B. 3AN1
C. WLAN1g
D. beaglemama
E. Hidden SSID (MAC = 00:1C:F0:FA:65:94)
70-534 dumps Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 32
You are trouble shooting a WiNG 5 deployment for a large customer that was configured with 3 separate WLANS on the RFS controller. Each of the WLANs were designated for three different departments (Finance, Human Resources, and Warehouse users). The customer is complaining that users from certain department are incorrectly attaining access to resources from other departments. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason this is happening?
A. No VLAN segmentation on the wired network
B. The layer 3 VLAN option has not been configured properly
C. WLAN segmentation has not been enabled on your RFS controller
D. VPN tunnel has not been established between the RFS controller and the core
switch
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Q&As: 47

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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-473 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)

QUESTION NO: 23
You no longer have any port availability in the company’s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches
B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch
C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding
D. The domain priority is inconsistent
70-473 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
What is one advantage of hardware of hardware RAID controllers?
A. Volume management is performed by the host
B. Volume management is performed by the switch
C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write performance.
D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which connectivity types are associated with block level access?
A. DAS and SAN
B. NAS and SAN
C. LAN and SAN
D. NAS and DAS
70-473 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Which host adapter configuration parameters is set to create redundant logical “paths” between the server and the storage device?
A. LUN-pathing
B. Zone-pathing
C. Multiplathing
D. Cluster failover paths
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
Which subset of target devices allows for scallability beyond the 15 device limit in parallel SCSI?
A. target ports
B. I-T-L Nexus
C. logical units
D. command Descriptor blocks
70-473 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
A unix server has recently been unable to mount its file systems after the HBA driver has been replaced and driver has been upgraded. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The switch zoning was based on port assignments
B. the Switch using worldwide naming has not been updated
C. the disk array firmware was not updated
D. The file system table was not updated to reflect the changes in device IDs.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
You must implement a backup infrastructure for a remote office. This office has enough data to fill a single tape each night. You can remotely schedule and control your backup server backups throughout the night. The staff at this site is not technical and will not touch the equipment. You only need to store the last five days worth of data these tapes. What solution purchase and administrative costs?
A. Deploy a tape autoloader with enough tape slots to support a new tape for each night
B. Deploy a set of five individual tape drives to the backup server each with a tape preloaded then rotate the tape drive you use each night.
C. Deploy a tape library with multiple tape drives to ensure quick backup and enough tape slots to support a new tape each night.
D. Deploy a single direct attached tape drive to the backup server and instruct onsite personnel how to swap tapes to ensure a new blank tape is available each night.
70-473 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 30
Which statement describes a RAID array?
A. Collection of disks in a single enclosure
B. Collection of disks with a controller that provides mirroring functionality
C. a pair of controllers that provides cache, striping, and virtualization services
D. collection of Fiber Channel disks in a single enclosure
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
Which HBA configuration parameter represents the global value of outstanding commands?
A. task-depth
B. queue-depth
C. target-queue-throuttle
D. ipfc-lun-throttle
70-473 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION NO: 32
What is the maximum distance of a 50- micrometer multimode fibre with a 850nm shortwave laser
at 2 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Which Fibre Channel protocol layer handles 8/10 bit encoding?
A. FC-0
B. FC-1
C. FC-2
D. FC-3
70-473 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
What describe RAID 3?
A. independent access with dedicated parity
B. parallel access with parity
C. independent access with interleaved parity
D. striping
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Which activity is performed by a storage device manager?
A. logical unit number (LUN) masking
B. Volume group configuration
C. File system configuration
D. name server management
70-473 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
What does a NAS head do?
A. It prevents volume virtualization
B. it connects other NAS devices to the LAN
C. It connects to a LAN attached tape device
D. It connects to block storage devices
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum distance of 9 micrometer singlemode fiber a 1300nm longware laser at 4
Gbps?
A. > 50k meters
B. 10k meters
C. 5 k meters
D. 2k meters
70-473 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 38
What is the function of zoning?
A. Allows certain N ports to be visible to each other
B. Allows certain logical units to be visible to a HBA
C. Defines Which path data will take through the network
D. Allows certain logical units mounted to the host
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
How many zone sets can be active in a fabric at a single time?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. unlimited
70-473 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
What could be the possible problem if the expected disk drives do not appear to the Fible Channel host adapter?
A. adapter BIOS was not enabled
B. device driver revision is incorrect
C. drive spin up was not enabled
D. LUN was not masked by array software
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
Which statement describes archiving?
A. Archiving is implemented for UNIX-based mail systems.
B. Archiving provides copies of current data to be used in the event of a disaster
C. Archiving selectively stores frequently used files and data on high performance media
D. Archiving stores infrequently used files and data on lower performance media
70-473 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which classification of storage virtualization is implemented in the storage array?
A. file/record virtualization
B. file system virtualization
C. disk virtualization
D. sector virtualization
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-740 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (October 2017)

QUESTION NO: 79
The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.
A. True
B. False
70-740 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
Contingency Tables are used to do which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. Illustrate one-tail proportions.
B. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other.
C. Contrast the Outliers under the tail.
D. Analyze the “what if” scenario.
E. Applicable to data that is Attribute in nature
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 81
For the data shown here a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results. Which
statement(s) are true for proper Hypothesis Testing?
A. The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
B. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene’s test
C. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood’s Median test
70-740 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 82
The higher the sigma level of a process the better the performance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
The Six Sigma methodology had its origins at __________________ in the late 1980’s when
William Smith coined the name for quality related work being done there.
A. Motorola
B. Allied Signal
C. General Electric
D. Honeywell
70-740 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
Training cost is $4,000 and a project required an initial investment of $30,000. If the project yields
monthly savings of $2,000 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before
money costs and taxes)?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 27
D. 33
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 85
Lean Six Sigma’s general approach to solving significant challenges related to a process is called
_________________.
A. DOE
B. SIPOC
C. DMAIC
D. FMEA
70-740 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine ____________________
attributes of a product or service.
A. At least 6
B. The profitable
C. Critical-to-Quality
D. The majority of the
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Those who are trained to the skill levels of a Black Belt are typically utilized to apply Lean Six
Sigma methodologies what percentage of their time?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
70-740 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
A process can be defined as a repetitive and systematic series of steps or activities where inputs
are modified or assembled to achieve a customer desired result.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 89
Customers make a purchase decision based on a number of factors. In Lean Six Sigma we refer
to these decision points as CTQ’s or as ____________________.
A. Critical-to-quality
B. Conscious thought qualities
C. Conspicuous time quandaries
D. Cost of the quantity
70-740 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as Tangible (Visible) Costs and Hidden Costs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
An employee of ACME Corporation noticed that every loan application that gets approved is
copied four times and is stored in different locations in the company for no apparent reason. This
would be an example of __________________.
A. Internal Failure Costs
B. Appraisal Costs
C. External Failure Costs
D. Prevention Costs
70-740 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 92
The 80:20 rule is associated with which of these tools?
A. Pareto Chart
B. Simon’s Cross-Functional Tool
C. SIPOC
D. Framing Tool
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93
One of the metrics commonly used in Lean Six Sigma is DPU. This acronym stands for
___________________.
A. Deferred planned usage
B. Defects per unit
C. Decreased production utilization
D. Downtime per unit
70-740 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of these items best describe the
purpose of RTY?
A. A function of Y=f(x)
B. Accounts for losses due to rework and scrap
C. Isolates the increase throughput
D. Determines incremental Growth
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
What is the Cycle Time, in seconds, for a process having a Throughput of 7,200 units per hour?
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 10
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
The following Business Case is constructed properly.
“In business unit A there are too many flashlight returns and flashlight sales have decreased by 25
percent.”
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 97
To create standardization of financial benefit calculations project savings are typically based on
savings over what period of time?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. The remainder of the calendar year
E. The remainder of the fiscal year
70-740 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 98
The essence of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste while improving process flow to
achieve speed and agility at lower cost.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 99
Lean had its origins in the development and practice of the ___________ Production System.
A. Honda
B. Toyota
C. Ford
D. Motorola
70-740 pdf Answer: B

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