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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration

C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and  analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter

B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams

300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-331 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)
QUESTION 173
You need to ensure that corporate search guidelines are followed. What rule should you create? (To answer, select the appropriate option from each drop-down list in the answer area.)
70-331 dumps
QUESTION 174
You need to resolve the authentication issue that occurs in the SharePoint environment. What should you do?
A. Deploy the Secure Store Service.
B. Use classic mode authentication and set the authentication type to NTLM.
C. Use the Distributed Cache service.
D. Use classic mode authentication and set the authentication type to Kerberos.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 175
You need to implement Office 365 authentication. What should you do?
A. Create a two-way trust between proseware.com and adatum.com.

B. Deploy an AD FS proxy for the proseware.com domain.
C. Create an AD DS domain named proseware.com and join the AD FS servers to the proseware.com domain.
D. Add adatum.com and proseware.com as Office 365 SSO domains and use the SupportMultipleDomain parameter.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 176
You need to ensure that profile information about contractors and employees is available in search results. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 177
You need to provide access to the Corporate Projects site collection to remote internal users. Which authentication mode and site collection URL should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate answer choices to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-331 dumps
70-331 dumps
QUESTION 178
In an existing deployment, all connections appear to be unoptimized. The Current Connections page lists the connections as pass-through. The logs indicate admission control “Jan 19 18:44:56 client sport[343]: [admission_control.WARN] Pausing intercept.” What are some possible ways to alleviate the problem? (Select 2)
A. Verify that there is no SMB Signing on the server
B. Ensure that there are no Opportunistic Lock issues
C. Disable or reduce the connection timeout of MAPI prepopulation
D. Investigate if there is a virus on a client trying to propagate itself
E. Validate that NFS v2 broadcasts are enabled
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 179
You need to take a full packet trace from the WAN interface of a Steelhead appliance to send into technical support. Which of the following commands will achieve this assuming typical Ethernet MTU? (Select 2)
A. tcpdump i wan0_0 s 0 w filename
B. tcpdump i wan0_0 s 1500 w filename
C. tcpdump I wan0_0 w filename
D. tcpdump i wan0_0 w filename
E. tcpdump I wan0_0 s 1500 w filename
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 180
Which of the following commands would allow you to generate a system dump from the CLI?
A. sysdump
B. dump generate
C. debug generate dump
D. sysdump generate dump
E. dump generate w filename
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 181
The Optimization service has been disabled on a Steelhead appliance. Which of the following events occur as a result?
A. LAN and WAN interfaces stop intercepting
B. Primary interface becomes disabled
C. AUX interface becomes disabled
D. The Steelhead appliance reboots
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 182
Which section of the Steelhead appliance Management Console can help identify speed/duplex errors? (Select 2)
A. View Logs
B. Current Connections

C. Alarm Status
D. Interface Statistics
E. Monitored Ports
70-331 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 183
A customer with a new physical in-path installation decides to turn on the optimization service during lunch time on a working day. This is done so that he can see if the users perceive any performance improvement. When starting the optimization service, he does not enable the in- path kickoff option. Assuming there were several already active connections when he starts the optimization service, how will the Steelhead appliances handle these existing connections?
A. The Steelhead appliance will optimize all connections, including pre-existing
B. The Steelhead appliance will pass-through all pre-existing connections, leaving them un- optimized
C. The Steelhead appliance will reset all pre-existing connections, thus automatically changing their optimization status from un-optimized to optimized
D. The Steelhead appliance will list the connections as “pre-existing” on the Current Connections page
E. Both B and D
F. Both C and D
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 184
You need to perform a tcpdump of traffic entering the Steelhead appliance’s lan0_0 interface. Which of the following demonstrate the proper command format to perform the tcpdump and capture to a file?
A. tcpdump p lan0_0 S 300 w lancap.cap
B. tcpdump i lan0_0 s 300 w lancap.cap
C. tcpdump i lan0_0
D. tcpdump I lan0_0 s 300
E. tcpdump i lan0_0 -3 300 r lancap.cap
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 185
In a new physical in-path deployment, you realize that a Steelhead appliance at one of your branch offices is optimizing connections from other sites, however, no connections initiated from that branch office are being optimized. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Duplex mismatch
B. Bilateral Opportunistic Lock failure
C. Policy-based routing incorrectly configured
D. Reversed WAN and LAN cabling
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
When troubleshooting a datastore wrapping alarm with 1 day wrapping notification configured, which of the following should be examined? (Select 2)
A. If the unit was mis-sized
B. If stream based encrypted traffic is being sent across the link as optimized
C. If your fixed-target rules are pointing to the correct Steelhead appliance
D. If Connection Forwarding was properly configured
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 187
What should you do when you receive the following message?
A. Nothing. This is a warning message which means that the Steelhead appliance is resetting an internal state regarding this connection and it should not affect user performance.
B. Switch off the Steelhead appliance
C. Create a specific pass-through rule to bypass the above source and destination hosts
D. Reload the Steelhead appliance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 188
What should you do when you receive the following message? [intercept.NOTICE] sending kickoff RST:
10.35.178.41:1169 -> 10.110.141.30:1031.
A. Nothing. This is just a notice message.
B. Verify whether the “Reset Existing Client Connections on Start Up” option is checked and uncheck it
C. Switch off the Steelhead appliance
D. Create a specific pass-through rule to bypass the above source and destination hosts
E. Restart the Steelhead appliance
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit.
In the accompanying exhibit, SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize FTP and HTTP sessions between Client41 and the respective application hosts Server31 and Server32. However, optimization does not happen for
  Client42 and these application hosts. A quick check on SH3 and SH4 registers neither optimized nor pass through traffic from Client42. Client42 is able to ping Client41 and the in-path address of SH4. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto-discovery mode. What is the likely cause?
A. The default gateway of Client41 is configured wrong
B. The default gateway of Client42 is configured wrong
C. The default gateway of SH3 is configured wrong
D. The default gateway of SH4 is configured wrong
E. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit.
SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize FTP and HTTP sessions between Client41 and the respective application hosts Server31 and Server32. However, optimization seems to be a problem for Client42 and these application hosts. A quick check on SH3 and SH4 registers neither optimized nor pass-through traffic from Client42. Client42 is able to ping to both Server31 and Server32. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto discovery mode. What is the likely cause?
A. The default gateway of Client41 is configured wrong
B. The default gateway of Client42 is configured wrong
C. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies TCP traffic from Client42
D. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
70-331 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit.
SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize HTTP sessions from Client41 to application host Server31. However, Client41 receives a failure messagE. “ftp connect: Unknown error number” while trying to connect Server32. The same applies to Client42. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto- discovery mode. Client41 and Client42 are able to ping Server32. What is the most likely cause of this failure?
A. The network interface card (NIC) at Server32 is down
B. The FTP service running in Server32 is down
C. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies IP traffic from Client41 and Client42
D. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies FTP control traffic from Client41 and Client42
E. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit.
A connection times out when Client41 and Client42 attempt to either establish an HTTP session to Server31 or an FTP connection to Server32 after not connecting to them for some time. The very next attempt to connect to these services done immediately after the failure seems to work correctly. The clients are able to ping both servers and no access-lists are configured on the routers. SH3 uses the IP address of R3f0 as its default gateway. Upon powering off SH3 and SH4, the problem goes away even for first connection and everything works normally (even after not connecting for extended periods of time). Which of the following are likely to correct this problem?
A. Both servers have faulty network interface cards and should be replaced
B. Both the HTTP service running in Server31 and the FTP service running in Server32 are down and should be restarted
C. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at SH3
D. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at R3
E. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at L3 Switch
Correct Answer: C
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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)

Question No : 9 How is a password set on the BlackBerry Device?
A. Options -> Security-> Password -> Device Password
B. Settings-> Security-> Security and Privacy-> Device Password
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Options -> Device Password
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Settings -> Device Password
300-360 exam 
Answer: B
Question No : 10 Which of the following is an essential aid to investigate a problem experienced on a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) smartphone when being reported to BlackBerry?
A. Playbook
B. BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) server name
C. The location of the device
D. The time of occurrence and the device logs
Answer: D
Question No : 11 When a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device is connected to a computer, the internal storage devices such as the inserted micro SD card are not mounted and mapped to drive letters. What is the most likely cause and how can it be corrected?
A. The host computer has used the drive letters reserved for BlackBerry mapped drives. These drives will need to be moved to allow the BlackBerry drive letters to be assigned to the BB10.
B. The BlackBerry Device Manager is not installed on the host computer and the BB10 will not have the capability to mount the internal storage devices as drive letters. Install the BlackBerry Device Driver and retry the connection.
C. The BlackBerry Mapped Network Device driver is not loaded, the BlackBerry Device Manager requires this driver to map the internal BB10 storage devices to drive letters. Install the required driver from Windows Update and try again.
D. The Wi-Fi radio has been turned off, and this prevents the BB10 from accepting the mapped drive request from the BlackBerry Device Manager. Turn on the Wi-Fi radio and retry the connection.
300-360 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No : 12  What happens when a user activates a Playbook in addition to a smartphone on the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. The smartphone stops communication with the server
B. The smartphone has a popup to choose the device to continue communication with the BDS.
C. Both the Playbook and the smartphone will continue to work since the BDS supports multiple devices per user.
D. The devices with the most memory free will stay enabled, and the other devices are disabled from the BDS automatically.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
The data de-duplication system checks each block of data to determine whether it is _____________with a block that has already been received. The ______________ blocks are replaced with pointers to their equivalent blocks that are already in storage.
A. combined,combined
B. scaled, scaled
C. redundant,redundant
D. load balanced, load balanced
300-360 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
The cloud architecture that results from the application of the __________________ pattern relies on the _____________mechanism to synchronize cloud storage devices.
A. Synchronized Operating State. resource cluster
B. Redundant Storage, resource replication
C. Zero Downtime, hypervisor
D. Service Load Balancing, failover system
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The _____________pattern is applied to dynamically allocate and reclaim physical uplinks, whenever _____________become bottlenecks.
A. Elastic Resource Capacity, virtual firewalls
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, failed network ports
C. Elastic Resource Capacity, network cards
D. Elastic Network Capacity, virtual switches
300-360 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
In a cloud architecture resulting from the application of the Cloud Bursting compound pattern, the _________________ mechanism is used to maintain synchronizing between a cloud consumer’s on-premise and cloud-based IT resources.
A. hypervisor
B. resource pooling
C. automated scaling listener
D. resource replication
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied together with the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern, so that a hypervisor can be initiated by _____________to allocate more resources for a virtual server.
A. a watchdog monitor
B. a pay-per-use monitor
C. an intelligent automation engine script
D. an automatic scaling listener
300-360 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern is applied to resolve issues caused by:
A. Multiple cloud storage devices that need to vertically scale at the same time
B. Cloud consumers that are limited to using one cloud storage device to store multiple applications and services
C. Different disktypesacross redundant cloud storage devices that use different storage methods
D. Cloud consumers that have cloud storage devices in different geographical regions that need to be combined
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
The system resulting from the application of the Direct LUN Access pattern allows virtual servers to see LUN5 as directly accessible file-based storage.
A. True
B. False
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
The cloud architecture that is established by the application of the Storage Workload Management pattern can rely on the storage capacity monitor to: (Choose Two)
A. notify the storage capacity system whenever a cloud storage device is being over-utilized
B. migrate LUN5 to different cloud storage devices
C. detect when the workload of a cloud storage device has reached a pre-defined threshold
D. act as an external interlace to a cloud storage service
Answer: A,C
Question No : 21 Where can saved VPN Profiles be located on the BlackBerry Smartphone?
A. Options, Security. VPN
B. Settings. Network Settings. VPN
C. Options. Wi-Fi. VPN
D. Settings. VPN
300-360 pdf 
Answer: B
Question No : 22 What is the name of the Blackberry desktop client for BlackBerry 10 (BB10)?
A. Device Manager
B. WebDesktop
C. BlackBerry Link
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager for BB10
Answer: C
Question No : 23 A user is experiencing difficulty activating a second device using BlackBerry® Web Desktop Manager. What should be checked in BlackBerry Administration Console to ensure a second device can be activated?
A. License limit
B. BlackBerry Controller
C. Email profile
D. Enterprise Proxy
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Answer: A
Question No : 25 If the owner wishes to continue without signing into or creating a BlackBerry ID when first using a BlackBerry smartphone, what limitations or actions will be encountered?
A. The out of box experience will not complete and the BlackBerry smartphone will remain on the BlackBerry ID screen and persist through device restarts as a valid ID is required to use the BlackBerry smartphone.
B. The BlackBerry smartphone will restart and present the out of box experience from the initial Welcome to BlackBerry screen if an attempt is made to bypass the screen by swiping left.
C. The out of box experience can be completed, but access to BlackBerry apps and services such as downloading applications from BlackBerry App World and setting up BlackBerry Messenger (BBM) will not be available until a BlackBerry ID is associated to the
BlackBerry smartphone.
D. The out of box experience will complete and access to BlackBerry services will be blocked until a security wipe is performed and a BlackBerry ID is associated to the smartphone during the subsequent out of box experience.
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Answer: C
Question No : 26 What are the two perimeters set when a smartphone/Tablet is activated on a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. Enterprise and Home
B. Work and Personal
C. Server and Personal
D. Work and Home
Answer: B
Question No : 27  A user who does not have Roaming services would like to get data while travelling at no cost. What service needs to be enabled to access Hot Spots?
A. Bluetooth
B. Cellular connection
C. International Roaming
D. Wi-Fi
300-360 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 28 Where can ‘new email’ notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notification -> Messages
B. Options -> Notification -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages
Answer: A
Question No : 29 What constitutes use of a license seat on a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. A user
B. Active user
C. Active devices
D. Active user and devices
300-360 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 30 A user reports that their Email account is reporting an error that states “Your Device is not connected to a network “. What is the cause?
A. Bluetooth radio is not connected to the wireless network
B. Wireless carrier data is not connected
C. Wi-Fi radio is enabled
D. NFC is connected to external device
Answer: B
Question No : 31 Email automatically moved to a subfolder in the mailbox, from an account integrated using Active Sync, is not seen in the Hub. Which of the options below best describes the process to ensure folder sync has been configured?
A. While in BlackBerry Hub, select Option pane (3 seashells, dots), navigate to Settings, Email Account Preferences, and select the integrated Active Sync account, select Folder Settings and verify or select the subfolders for synchronization.
B. Pull down top panel with a downward bezel swipe, select Settings, Accounts and select the integrated Active Sync account, select Edit Folder Settings.
C. Open the Setup application from the home screen, select Accounts, select Set Defaults and select the integrated Active Sync account, open Folder Synchronization and verify or select the desired subfolders.
D. While in the BlackBerry Hub, open the Options panel, select Inbox Management, open the integrated Active Sync account and select Edit Folder Settings and verify or select the desired subfolders.
300-360 vce Answer: B
Question No : 32  Which of the following resources would enable a user who has lost a device to ensure that their contact information is displayed on their BlackBerry?
A. BlackBerry Protect
B. BlackBerry Lost and Found
C. App World
D. BlackBerry Help
Answer: A
Question No : 33
A user reports getting a 403 error while trying to configure their e-mail account. What is the most likely cause?
A. The user is not provisioned for data services.
B. The user* s password has been mistyped.
C. ActiveSync is currently off-line.
D. ActiveSync is not configured with Autodiscover.
300-360 exam Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
You need to recommend a Windows Server 2008 R2 server configuration that meets the following requirements:
Supports the installation of Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Provides redundancy for SQL services if a single server fails What should you recommend?
A. Install a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
B. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard on two servers. Configure Network Load Balancing on the two servers.
C. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure Network Load Balancing on the two servers.
D. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
70-646 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fail Over Clustering, which is available on the Enterprise edition (not on standard) will provide fail over as required.
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition is the version of the operating system targeted at large businesses. Plan to deploy this version of Windows 2008 on servers that will run applications such as SQL Server 2008 Enterprise Edition and Exchange Server 2007. These products require the extra processing power and RAM that Enterprise Edition supports. When planning deployments, consider Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition in situations that require the following technologies unavailable in Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition:
Failover Clustering I-ail over clustering is a technology that allows another server to continue to service client requests in the event that the original server fails. Clustering is covered in more detail in Chapter 11. “Clustering and High Availability.” You deploy failover clustering on mission critical servers to ensure that important resources are available even if a server hosting those resources fails.

QUESTION NO: 2
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. Your main office has an Internet connection. Your company plans to open a branch office. The branch office will connect to the main office by using a WAN link. The WAN link will have limited bandwidth. The branch office will not have access to the Internet. The branch office will contain 30 Windows Server 2008 R2 servers. You need to plan the deployment of the servers in the branch office.
The deployment must meet the following requirements:
Installations must be automated.
Computers must be automatically activated.
Network traffic between the offices must be minimized.
What should you include in your plan?
A. In the branch office, implement Key Management Service (KMS), a DHCP server, and Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
B. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent Activation on the servers. In the main office, implement a DHCP server and Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
C. In the main office, implement Windows Deployment Services (WDS). In the branch office, implement a DHCP server and implement the Key Management Service (KMS).
D. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent Activation on the servers. In the main office, implement a DHCP server. In the branch office, implement Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
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Answer: A
Explanation:
The key here is that bandwidth from the branch to the main office is limited and there is no direct link to MS. WDS and Product Activation. Although product activation does not need to occur during the actual installation process, administrators considering using WDS to automate deployment should also consider using volume activation to automate activation. Volume activation provides a simple centralized method that systems administrators can use for the activation of large numbers of deployed servers. Volume activation allows for two types of keys and three methods of activation. The key types are the Multiple Activation Key (MAK) and the Key Management Services (KMS) key. Multiple Activation Keys allow activation of a specific number of computers. Each successful activation depletes the activation pool. For example, a MAK key that has 100 activations allows for the activation of 100 computers. The Multiple Activation Key can use the MAK Proxy Activation and the MAK Independent Activation activation methods. MAK Proxy Activation uses a centralized activation request on behalf of multiple products using a single connection to Microsoft’s activation
servers. MAK Independent Activation requires that each computer activates individually against Microsoft’s activation servers. The Branch office has no internet connection, so MAK is not the solution. KMS requires at least 25 computers connecting before activation can occur, and activation must be renewed by reconnecting to the KMS server every 180 days. You can use KMS and MAK in conjunction with one another. The number of computers, how often they connect to the network, and whether there is Internet connectivity determines which solution you should deploy. You should deploy MAK if substantial numbers of computers do not connect to the network for more than 180 days. If there is no Internet connectivity and more than 25 computers, you should deploy KMS. If there is no Internet connectivity and less than 25 computers, you will need to use MAK and activate each system over the telephone.
QUESTION NO: 3
Your network contains a Webbased Application that runs on Windows Server 2003. You plan to migrate the Webbased Application to Windows Server 2008 R2. You need to recommend a server configuration to support the Webbased Application.
The server configuration must meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the Application is available to all users if a single server fails
Support the installation of .NET Applications
Minimize software costs
What should you recommend?
A. Install the Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard on two servers. Configure the servers in a Network Load Balancing cluster.
B. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Web on two servers. Configure the servers in a Network Load Balancing cluster.
C. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
D. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
70-646 pdf 
Answer: B
Explanation:
Web Edition meets the requirements
Windows Web Server 2008 R2
Windows Web Server 2008 R2 is designed to function specifically as a Web application server. Other roles, such as Windows Deployment Server and Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), are not supported on Windows Web Server 2008 R2. You deploy this server role either on a screened subnet to support a website viewable to external hosts or as an intranet server. As appropriate given its stripped-down role, Windows Web Server 2008 R2 does not support the high-powered hardware configurations that other editions of Windows Server 2008 R2 do. Windows Web Server 2008 R2 has the following properties: Supports a maximum of 32 GB of RAM and 4 sockets in symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) configuration You should plan to deploy Windows Web Server 2008 R2 in the Server Core configuration, which minimizes its attack surface, something that is very important on a server that interacts with hosts
external to your network environment. You should plan to deploy the full version of Windows Web Server 2008 R2 only if your organization’s web applications rely on features that are not available in the Server Core version of Windows Web Server 2008 R2. Unlike the Server Core version of Windows Web Server 2008, Windows Web Server 2008 R2 supports a greater amount of Internet
Information Services (IIS) functionality.
Configuring Windows Network Load Balancing
While DNS Round Robin is a simple way of distributing requests, Windows Server 2008 NLB is a much more robust form of providing high availability to applications. Using NLB, an administrator can configure multiple servers to operate as a single cluster and control the usage ot the cluster in near real-time.
Why Failover Cluster will not work.
Contrast DNS Round Robin and NLB with Failover Clustering, another availability technology in Windows Server 2008. Formerly known as server clustering, Failover Clustering creates a group of computers that all have access lo the same data store or disk resource or network share. The applicationsjunning on aJailoverCluster must be cluster-aware. Failover Clustering has had some changes since Windows Server 2003. Lesson 2 will cover these changes.
QUESTION NO: 4
Your company purchases 15 new 64bit servers as follows:
Five of the servers have a single processor.
Five of the servers have a single dual core processor.
Five of the servers have two quad core processors.
You plan to deploy Windows Server 2008 R2 on the new servers by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to recommend a WDS install image strategy that meets the following requirements:
Minimizes the number of install images
Supports the deployment of Windows Server 2008 R2
What should you recommend?
A. one install image file that contains three install images
B. one install image file that contains a single install image
C. two install image files that each contain a single install image
D. three install image files that each contain a single install image
70-646 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
You only need one image per processor type
Windows Deployment Services Images
Windows Deployment Services uses two different types of images: install images and boot images. Install images are the operating system images that will be deployed to Windows Server 2008 or Windows Vista client computers. A default installation image is located in the \Sources directory of the Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008 installation DVDs. If you are using WDS to deploy Windows Server 2008 to computers with different processor architectures, you will need to add separate installation images for each architecture to the WDS server. Architecture-specific images can be found on the architecture-specific installation media. For example, the Itanium
image is located on the Itanium installation media and the x64 default installation image is located on the x64 installation media. Although you can create custom images, you only need to have one image per processor architecture. For example, deploying Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition x64 to a computer with 1 x64 processor and to a computer with 8 x64 processors in SMP
configuration only requires access to the default x64 installation image. Practice exercise 2 at the end of this lesson covers the specifics ol adding a default installation image to a WDS server.
QUESTION NO: 5
Your network contains a single Active Directory site.You plan to deploy 1,000 new computers that will run Windows 7 Enterprise. The new computers have Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) network adapters.You need to plan the deployment of the new computers to meet the following requirements:
·Support 50 simultaneous installations of Windows 7
·Minimize the impact of network operations during the deployment of the new computers
·Minimize the amount of time required to install Windows 7 on the new computers
What should you include in your plan?
A. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role. Configure the IP Helper tables on all routers.
B. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role. Configure each WDS server by using native mode.
C. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role and the Transport Server feature. Configure the Transport Server to use a custom network profile.
D. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role and the Transport Server feature. Configure the Transport Server to use a static multicast address range.
70-646 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:

WDS Multicast Server
Updated: November 21, 2007
Applies To: Windows Server 2008
The multicast server deploys an image to a large number of client computers concurrently without overburdening the network. When you create a multicast transmission for an image, the data is sent over the network only once, which can drastically reduce the network bandwidth that is used.

This topic only applies to Windows Server 2008. If you have Windows Server 2008 R2, see Configuring Transport Server. You have two options when installing the Windows Deployment Services role in Windows Server 2008. You can install both the Deployment Server and Transport Server role services (which is the 
default) or you can install only the Transport Server role service. The second configuration is for advanced scenarios, such as environments without Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Domain Name System (DNS), or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP). You can configure Transport Server to enable you to boot from the network using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE) and Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP), a multicast server, or both. Note that Transport Server does not contain or support the Windows Deployment Services image store. Configure how to obtain IP addresses. If multiple servers are using multicast functionality on a network (Transport Server, Deployment Server, or another solution), it is important that each server is configured so that the multicast IP addresses do not collide. Otherwise, you may encounter excessive traffic when you enable multicasting. Note that each Windows Deployment Services server will have the same default range. To work around this issue, specify static ranges that do not overlap to ensure that each server is using a unique IP address, or configure each of the servers to obtain multicast addresses from a Multicast Address Dynamic Client Allocation Protocol (MADCAP) server. The server architectures are illustrated in the following diagram. The blue parts are installed with Transport Server and the Deployment Server. The grey parts are installed with the Deployment Server only. The yellow parts are not installed with either, but can be written using guidelines in the Windows SDK.
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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Q&As: 219

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23.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging. You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync. What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
070-347 exam Answer: D
24.DRAG DROP
Your company uses Office 365.You are planning a user-driven deployment of Office 365 ProPlus. You need to provide users with the minimum requirements for running Office 365 ProPlus. Which requirements should you provide? To answer, drag the appropriate requirements to the correct targets. Each requirement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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25.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company is deploying Office 365 ProPlus.
The company has the following deployment requirements:
– Office applications must be installed from a local network location by using a self-service model.
– Office application updates must not be deployed until they have been tested for compatibility.
– The installation of Office applications and updates must occur without user interaction.
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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26.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company’s environment includes Office 2007, Office 2010, Office 2013, Windows 7, and Windows 8.The company uses Office Telemetry. You need to collect Office version usage data for an upcoming migration to Office 365 ProPlus. What should you do?
A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Answer: A
27.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data. What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.

B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
070-347 pdf Answer: C
28.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently subscribed to Office 365 ProPlus. When performing a test deployment, you receive the following error message: “Windows cannot find ‘C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office 15 \clientX64\integratedOffice.exe’.Make sure you typed the name correctly, and then try again.” You need to successfully complete the test deployment. Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Manually remove the registry subkeys associated with Office 2013, and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
B. completely uninstall existing versions of Office 2013 and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
C. Download the Office 365 ProPlus package to a file share, and then deploy Office 365 ProPlus by using Group Policy.
D. Automate the installation of Office 365 ProPlus applications by using Microsoft System Center
Configuration Manager.
Answer: A, D
29.Which storage method will make data most accessible?
A. Optical disk
B. Magnetic Disk
C. Jukebox
D. Tape
070-347 vce Correct Answer: B
30.Which task is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data center object?
A. Determining which device ports have the highest rates of errors
B. Viewing a list of file systems that are nearly full
C. Monitoring the status of processes on the host
D. Listing the number of disks in all storage arrays
Correct Answer: B
31.Which event is known as a head crash?
A. Two R/W heads have touched each other
B. A read head and a write head have touched each other
C. A R/W head has touched the disk data area
D. Two adjacent disk platters have touched each other
E. SAN
070-347 exam Correct Answer: C
32.What is a disadvantage of array based remote replication?
A. Uses host CPU resources
B. Cannot manage log shipping
C. Limited to specific databases
D. Limited to specific operating systems
Correct Answer: B
33.What is a valid member of a zone in a SAN?
A. The IP address of a host
B. A Domain ID
C. The serial number of a storage array
D. A HBA WWPN
070-347 dumps Correct Answer: D
34.What failure does RAID technology guard against?
A. Host bus Adapter failures
B. Host failures
C. Switch Failure
D. Disk Failure

Correct Answer: D
35.What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination device?
A. Faster restore time
B. Random access
C. RAID Protection
D. Portability
070-347 pdf Correct Answer: D
36.Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit?
1. Read data is sent to the host
2. Host sends read request to storage system
3. Cache is searched, and data is found
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 3, 1, 2
C. 1, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 3
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Q&As: 187

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QUESTION: 75
When creating a parameter in Crystal Reports, when is the edit mask option available?
A. For a parameter that uses a dynamic prompt and requires a string value.
B. For any type of parameter that uses a static prompt.
C. For any type of parameter that uses a dynamic prompt.
D. For a parameter that uses a static prompt and requires a string value.
300-165 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 76
A report requires a pie chart that enables users to drill down on each slice to see the underlyingdetails. Which type of chart layout should you select on the Data tab of the Chart Expert in order to support the report’s requirements?
A. Group
B. OLAP
C. Cross-Tab
D. Detail
Answer: A
QUESTION: 77
Which operator can you use in Crystal syntax to comment out a piece of code?
A. Comment (‘)
B. Comment (//)
C. Comment (Rem)
D. Comment (#)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 78
Which formula can you use in a record selection to include all dates 30 days from the date the report is refreshed?
A. {Orders.Order Date} in Prev30Days
B. {Orders.Order Date} in NextMonth
C. {Orders.Order Date} in NextPeriod
D. {Orders.Order Date} in Next30Days
Answer: D
QUESTION: 79
How can you change a field’s position?
A. Select the Size and Position option in the Report menu.
B. Select the Location option in the Format menu.
C. Right-click the field and choose the Size and Position option.
D. Right-click the field and choose the Location option.
300-165 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 80
You need to create a formula that extracts the area code from each customer’s telephone number and displays the region based on the area code. Phone numbers are stored in a text field in the form 555-555-5555. Which formula will meet the stated requirements?
A. Local stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
B. Shared stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF aCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF aCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
C. stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
D. Global numberVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
Answer: A
QUESTION: 81
You create a new Crystal report and add an alert. After refreshing the report the alert is triggered. New data that meets the alert condition is added to the database, but the alert is not triggered again. Why is the alert NOT triggered?
A. The AlertMessage flag is set to “False.”
B. Once an alert is triggered, it is not evaluated again until the report is refreshed.
C. The alert condition must be refreshed after the alert is triggered.
D. Alerts are only triggered once per report.
300-165 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 82
Which three methods can you use to access the Global Formula Search? (Choose three.)
A. In the Preview Pane, right click on the field.
B. In the Formula Editor, right click on the field.
C. In the Preview Pane, select the field and press Alt-D.
D. In the Formula Editor, select the field and press Alt-D.
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 83
You are designing a Crystal report that contains a chart. Your chart must contain one “On change of” value and one “Show” value. Which three chart types can you use? (Choose three.)
A. Stock
B. Pie
C. Funnel
D. Radar
300-165 exam Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 84
Which three options can you use to export a Crystal report to a file type that maintains conditional formatting? (Choose three.)
A. Rich Text Format

B. MS Excel 97-2003
C. Acrobat Format (PDF)
D. XML
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 85
You are using a parameter to highlight sections in a Crystal Reports 2008 report. What will happen if you run the report with a different parameter value?
A. A database refresh will occur.
B. The report will produce an error.
C. The report refreshes from saved data.
D. A database logon prompt will appear.
300-165 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 86
You create a new Crystal report using a dynamic cascading parameter. You want to use all available values in the parameter prompt without selecting each value individually. How can you achieve the required result?
A. Create an “All values” item using a shared variable then reference this item in the record selection formula.
B. Create an “All values” item in a command object then reference this item in the record selection formula.
C. Create an “All values” item using the All command then reference this item in the record selection formula.
D. Create an “All values” item using an argument then reference this item in the record selection formula.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 87
You specify the “read-only” option on the Common tab of the Section Expert. Which action can a user perform on objects in that section when editing the report?
A. Move
B. Copy

C. Format
D. Delete
300-165 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 88
You create a new dynamic cascading parameter using an existing prompt group in a report. You receive an “Unable to save the parameter” error message trying to save the parameter. Why does this happen?
A. The Prompt Group Text is not conditionally formatted.
B. The Value names within the dynamic cascading parameter are duplicated elsewhere in the report.
C. The Description field is empty.
D. The prompt group already has parameters bound to each level.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 89
You design a Summary report with the Suppress option selected instead of the Hide option. Which two types of information will be displayed when you double-click a summary figure on the report?(Choose two.)
A. Detail Header information
B. Group Header information
C. Detail Footer information
D. Group Footer information
300-165 vce Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 19
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands. You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
70-534 exam Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 20
You are designing an Azure web application. All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which
two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:

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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of least privilege. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer
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Hot Area:
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QUESTION: 22
Which of the following interfaces found on an RFS4000 or RFS6000 Controller can be used to supply Power over Ethernet to directly attached APs?
A. Gigabyte Ethernet (GE)
B. Uplink (UP)
C. Management Ethernet (ME)
D. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
E. Express
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which of the following interfaces are recommended to connect an RFS4000 or RFS6000 to the local network?
A. Management Ethernet (ME)
B. Gigabyte Ethernet (GE)
C. Uplink (UP)
D. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
E. Express
70-534 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 24
In which of the following modes does an RFS controller using WiNG 5 operate (select TWO)?
A. Hub mode
B. Bridge mode
C. Switch mode
D. Router mode
E. Repeater mode
F. Controller mode
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 25
You are deploying a WiNG 5 system and need to visualize Layer 1 activity only. Which of the following tools would allow you to do this?
A. Protocol Analyzer
B. Spectrum Analyzer
C. WLAN Discovery tool
D. Predictive Site Survey tool
E. Manual Site Survey tool
70-534 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
You are monitoring a wireless client on a WLAN and are using a 2.4GHz radio to capture a wireless trace. When using the sniffer-redirect option on Motorola AP without off-channel scanning, how many simultaneous 20Mhz channels can be redirected by the AP?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 11
Answer: A
QUESTION: 27
Which of the following terms are used to describe Motorola AP-650s (select TWO)?
A. FatAP
B. DependentAP
C. Non-Site survivable AP
D. Site Survivable AP
E. Independent AP
70-534 vce Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 28
When mounting an antenna on a metal wall, what special considerations do you have to take into account regarding RF propagation (select TWO)?

A. Length of antenna cable
B. The type of antenna to be used
C. Type of screws to be used
D. The distance the antenna is from the wall
E. Mounting height of the antenna
Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following is the single biggest security vulnerability evident in the image below?
A. Use of no security on Visitor VLAN
B. Use of Pre-Shared Key on several WLANs
C. Use of Wired Equivalent Privacy on WLAN1g
D. Use of Temporal Key Integrity Protocol on WLAN1a
E. Use of Netgear and Motorola APs on the same RF bands
F. Use of Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol on several WLANs
70-534 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
You have configured Radio 2 (5 GHz) of an AP-650 to use 802.11n 20/40 MHz channels. Under the WLAN configuration settings you have selected WPA/WPA2- TKIP using a PSK. To test the connection you associate an 802.lln client laptop device but notice that the connection speed between the two 802.11n devices is limited to 54 Mbps. See Exhibit: B.3.2.06 at the bottom. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this condition?

A. PSK is limited to 54 Mbps.
B. 802.11 Protection Mechanisms are in effect.
C. WPA/WPA2-TKIP encryption is limited to 54 Mbps.
D. Channels in the 5 GHz band are limited to 802.11a rates of 54 Mbps.
E. More wireless client devices are using 802.11a than are using 802.lln tipping the
AP into legacy compatibility mode.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 31
Wi-Fi radios can generally operate in the presence of transmissions from neighboring radios, as long as the neighboring signal strengths are at -85 dBm or lower. In Exhibit 3.3.10 shown below, ESSIDs Tin, Silver, Chrome, and Visitors are virtual APs assigned to a single Motorola AP-650 radio. Which of the neighboring ESSIDs are most likely to cause co-channel interference to this AP?

A. Moto
B. 3AN1
C. WLAN1g
D. beaglemama
E. Hidden SSID (MAC = 00:1C:F0:FA:65:94)
70-534 dumps Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 32
You are trouble shooting a WiNG 5 deployment for a large customer that was configured with 3 separate WLANS on the RFS controller. Each of the WLANs were designated for three different departments (Finance, Human Resources, and Warehouse users). The customer is complaining that users from certain department are incorrectly attaining access to resources from other departments. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason this is happening?
A. No VLAN segmentation on the wired network
B. The layer 3 VLAN option has not been configured properly
C. WLAN segmentation has not been enabled on your RFS controller
D. VPN tunnel has not been established between the RFS controller and the core
switch
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Q&As: 47

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QUESTION NO: 23
You no longer have any port availability in the company’s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches
B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch
C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding
D. The domain priority is inconsistent
70-473 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
What is one advantage of hardware of hardware RAID controllers?
A. Volume management is performed by the host
B. Volume management is performed by the switch
C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write performance.
D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which connectivity types are associated with block level access?
A. DAS and SAN
B. NAS and SAN
C. LAN and SAN
D. NAS and DAS
70-473 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Which host adapter configuration parameters is set to create redundant logical “paths” between the server and the storage device?
A. LUN-pathing
B. Zone-pathing
C. Multiplathing
D. Cluster failover paths
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
Which subset of target devices allows for scallability beyond the 15 device limit in parallel SCSI?
A. target ports
B. I-T-L Nexus
C. logical units
D. command Descriptor blocks
70-473 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
A unix server has recently been unable to mount its file systems after the HBA driver has been replaced and driver has been upgraded. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The switch zoning was based on port assignments
B. the Switch using worldwide naming has not been updated
C. the disk array firmware was not updated
D. The file system table was not updated to reflect the changes in device IDs.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
You must implement a backup infrastructure for a remote office. This office has enough data to fill a single tape each night. You can remotely schedule and control your backup server backups throughout the night. The staff at this site is not technical and will not touch the equipment. You only need to store the last five days worth of data these tapes. What solution purchase and administrative costs?
A. Deploy a tape autoloader with enough tape slots to support a new tape for each night
B. Deploy a set of five individual tape drives to the backup server each with a tape preloaded then rotate the tape drive you use each night.
C. Deploy a tape library with multiple tape drives to ensure quick backup and enough tape slots to support a new tape each night.
D. Deploy a single direct attached tape drive to the backup server and instruct onsite personnel how to swap tapes to ensure a new blank tape is available each night.
70-473 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 30
Which statement describes a RAID array?
A. Collection of disks in a single enclosure
B. Collection of disks with a controller that provides mirroring functionality
C. a pair of controllers that provides cache, striping, and virtualization services
D. collection of Fiber Channel disks in a single enclosure
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
Which HBA configuration parameter represents the global value of outstanding commands?
A. task-depth
B. queue-depth
C. target-queue-throuttle
D. ipfc-lun-throttle
70-473 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION NO: 32
What is the maximum distance of a 50- micrometer multimode fibre with a 850nm shortwave laser
at 2 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Which Fibre Channel protocol layer handles 8/10 bit encoding?
A. FC-0
B. FC-1
C. FC-2
D. FC-3
70-473 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
What describe RAID 3?
A. independent access with dedicated parity
B. parallel access with parity
C. independent access with interleaved parity
D. striping
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Which activity is performed by a storage device manager?
A. logical unit number (LUN) masking
B. Volume group configuration
C. File system configuration
D. name server management
70-473 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
What does a NAS head do?
A. It prevents volume virtualization
B. it connects other NAS devices to the LAN
C. It connects to a LAN attached tape device
D. It connects to block storage devices
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
What is the maximum distance of 9 micrometer singlemode fiber a 1300nm longware laser at 4
Gbps?
A. > 50k meters
B. 10k meters
C. 5 k meters
D. 2k meters
70-473 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 38
What is the function of zoning?
A. Allows certain N ports to be visible to each other
B. Allows certain logical units to be visible to a HBA
C. Defines Which path data will take through the network
D. Allows certain logical units mounted to the host
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
How many zone sets can be active in a fabric at a single time?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. unlimited
70-473 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
What could be the possible problem if the expected disk drives do not appear to the Fible Channel host adapter?
A. adapter BIOS was not enabled
B. device driver revision is incorrect
C. drive spin up was not enabled
D. LUN was not masked by array software
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
Which statement describes archiving?
A. Archiving is implemented for UNIX-based mail systems.
B. Archiving provides copies of current data to be used in the event of a disaster
C. Archiving selectively stores frequently used files and data on high performance media
D. Archiving stores infrequently used files and data on lower performance media
70-473 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which classification of storage virtualization is implemented in the storage array?
A. file/record virtualization
B. file system virtualization
C. disk virtualization
D. sector virtualization
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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QUESTION NO: 79
The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.
A. True
B. False
70-740 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
Contingency Tables are used to do which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. Illustrate one-tail proportions.
B. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other.
C. Contrast the Outliers under the tail.
D. Analyze the “what if” scenario.
E. Applicable to data that is Attribute in nature
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 81
For the data shown here a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results. Which
statement(s) are true for proper Hypothesis Testing?
A. The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
B. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene’s test
C. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood’s Median test
70-740 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 82
The higher the sigma level of a process the better the performance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
The Six Sigma methodology had its origins at __________________ in the late 1980’s when
William Smith coined the name for quality related work being done there.
A. Motorola
B. Allied Signal
C. General Electric
D. Honeywell
70-740 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
Training cost is $4,000 and a project required an initial investment of $30,000. If the project yields
monthly savings of $2,000 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before
money costs and taxes)?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 27
D. 33
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 85
Lean Six Sigma’s general approach to solving significant challenges related to a process is called
_________________.
A. DOE
B. SIPOC
C. DMAIC
D. FMEA
70-740 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine ____________________
attributes of a product or service.
A. At least 6
B. The profitable
C. Critical-to-Quality
D. The majority of the
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Those who are trained to the skill levels of a Black Belt are typically utilized to apply Lean Six
Sigma methodologies what percentage of their time?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
70-740 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
A process can be defined as a repetitive and systematic series of steps or activities where inputs
are modified or assembled to achieve a customer desired result.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 89
Customers make a purchase decision based on a number of factors. In Lean Six Sigma we refer
to these decision points as CTQ’s or as ____________________.
A. Critical-to-quality
B. Conscious thought qualities
C. Conspicuous time quandaries
D. Cost of the quantity
70-740 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as Tangible (Visible) Costs and Hidden Costs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
An employee of ACME Corporation noticed that every loan application that gets approved is
copied four times and is stored in different locations in the company for no apparent reason. This
would be an example of __________________.
A. Internal Failure Costs
B. Appraisal Costs
C. External Failure Costs
D. Prevention Costs
70-740 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 92
The 80:20 rule is associated with which of these tools?
A. Pareto Chart
B. Simon’s Cross-Functional Tool
C. SIPOC
D. Framing Tool
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93
One of the metrics commonly used in Lean Six Sigma is DPU. This acronym stands for
___________________.
A. Deferred planned usage
B. Defects per unit
C. Decreased production utilization
D. Downtime per unit
70-740 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of these items best describe the
purpose of RTY?
A. A function of Y=f(x)
B. Accounts for losses due to rework and scrap
C. Isolates the increase throughput
D. Determines incremental Growth
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
What is the Cycle Time, in seconds, for a process having a Throughput of 7,200 units per hour?
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 10
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 96
The following Business Case is constructed properly.
“In business unit A there are too many flashlight returns and flashlight sales have decreased by 25
percent.”
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 97
To create standardization of financial benefit calculations project savings are typically based on
savings over what period of time?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. The remainder of the calendar year
E. The remainder of the fiscal year
70-740 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 98
The essence of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste while improving process flow to
achieve speed and agility at lower cost.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 99
Lean had its origins in the development and practice of the ___________ Production System.
A. Honda
B. Toyota
C. Ford
D. Motorola
70-740 pdf Answer: B

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Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 10
You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism
B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
70-417 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool –
DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager). When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the
command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:…

References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 2: Deploying Servers, p. 44
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1
and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as shown in following table.

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When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2.
You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain.
What should you identify?
A. The placement of the infrastructure master
B. The placement of the global catalog server
C. The placement of the domain naming master

D. The placement of the PDC emulator
70-417 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The exhibit shows that Site2 does not have a PDC emulator. This is important because of the close
interaction between the RID operations master role and the PDC emulator role The PDC emulator
processes password changes from earlier-version clients and other domain controllers on a best-effort
basis; handles password authentication requests involving passwords that have recently changed and not
yet been replicated throughout the domain; and, by default, synchronizes time. If this domain controller
cannot connect to the PDC emulator, this domain controller cannot process authentication requests, it may
not be able to synchronize time, and password updates cannot be replicated to it.
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. The forest contains five
domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

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You need to configure DC5 as a global catalog server.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Administrative Center
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Sites and Services
D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
70-417 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Active Directory Sites and Services can be used to Add or remove the global catalog read-only directory
partitions from a domain controller in the site. Confirm that all read-only directory partitions have been
replicated to the new global catalog server. As well as verify that the global catalog server is being
advertised in Domain Name System (DNS).
References:

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a single domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains four domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

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All domain controllers are DNS servers.
You plan to deploy a new domain controller named DC5 in the contoso.com domain.
You need to identify which domain controller must be online to ensure that DC5 can be promoted
successfully to a domain controller.
Which domain controller should you identify?
A. DC1
B. DC2
C. DC3
D. DC4
70-417 vce 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to add a Domain Controller to corp.contoso.com, you need PDC and RID of that domain, not of the
root domain. The Domain Naming Master is needed to add, remove and rename domains in the forest, i.e.
not for individual Domain Controllers.
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All domain controllers currently run
Windows Server 2008 R2.
You plan to install a new domain controller named DC4 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
The new domain controller will have the following configurations:
Schema master
Global catalog server
DNS Server server role
Active Directory Certificate Services server role
You need to identify which configurations cannot be fulfilled by using the Active Directory Domain Services
Configuration Wizard.
Which two configurations should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Enable the global catalog server.
B. Transfer the schema master.
C. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services role.
D. Install the DNS Server role.
70-417 exam 
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
AD Installation Wizard will automatically install DNS and allows for the option to set it as a global catalog
server. ADCS and schema must be done separately.
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