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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-414 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)
QUESTION NO:3.You need to recommend a storage solution for the App1 VHDs. The solution must minimize downtime if a Hyper-V host fails. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
B. A clustered file server of the File Server for scale-out application data type
C. A clustered file server of the File Server for general use type
D. A Distributed File System (DFS) namespace
70-414 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
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70-414 dumps
QUESTION NO:4.You need to recommend a solution that meets the notification requirements. Which System Center 2012 components should you include in the recommendation?
A. Service Manager, Orchestrator and App Controller
B. Configuration Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
C. App Controller, Configuration Manager and Operations Manager
D. Operations Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
Answer: D
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO:5.You are evaluating the deployment of a multi-site Hyper-V failover cluster in the Miami office and the Seattle office to host App2. You need to identify which changes must be made to support the use of the multi-site cluster. Which changes should you identify?
A. Configure all of the virtual machines to use dynamic memory. Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated folder.

B. Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated folder. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices.
C. Purchase a storage solution that replicates the virtual machines. Configure all of the virtual machines to use dynamic memory.
D. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices. Purchase a storage solution that replicates the virtual machines.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO:6.You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO:7.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements. Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an SMB share. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO:8.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements. Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an NFS share. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
QUESTION NO:9.In adatum.com, you install and configure a server that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role and all of the AD FS role services installed. You need to recommend which AD FS configurations must be performed m adatum.com to meet the security requirements. Which configurations should you recommend before creating a trust policy?
A. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
B. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the server authentication certificate from Trey Research.
C. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the server authentication certificate from Trey Research.
D. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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70-414 dumps
QUESTION NO: 10
The resource replication mechanism can encompass a hypervisor that can support the multitenancy cloud characteristic. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following characteristics of cloud-based IT resources are difficult to fully test on Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) implementations? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. availability
B. confidentiality
C. reliability
D. performance
70-414 exam Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following statements are true about the state management database mechanism? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Software programs can off-load state data to a state management database in order to reduce the amount of runtime memory they consume.
B. The use of a state management database can improve scalability.
C. State management databases rely on the use of virtualization software.
D. The use of state management databases requires a ready-made environment.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 13
With cloud storage, consumers only pay for the actual storage they use. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-414 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following security mechanisms enables one cloud service consumer to be authenticated by a security broker, so that its security context is persisted when accessing other cloud services? Select the correct answer.
A. digital certificates
B. certificate authority
C. single sign-on
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
We exported data from our on-premise relational database to a cloud-based non-relational database. After the export, we noticed that the size of the cloud-based database was significantly larger than our on-premise database. What is the likely reason that the database size increased? Select the correct answer.
A. The transmission of the data over a wide area network resulted inthe accumulation of additionalmeta data from HTTP headers that was stored in the non-relational database, resulting in the increase in data received by the cloud.
B. The data in the relational database was normalized and became denormalized after being exported into a non-relational database.
C. In order to support higher levels of scalability, the cloud-based database is required to add state data to the non-relational data it stores. This state data is used to synchronize instances of the database tables during runtime usage, but also increases the size of the overall database.
D. All of the above.
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
The attack occurs when access is granted to an attacker erroneously or too broadly, resulting in the attacker gaining access to IT resources that are normally protected.
Select the correct answer.
A. denial of service
B. malicious intermediary
C. insufficient authorization
D. virtualization
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
The is a service agent that can measure the usage of a cloud-based IT resource by a cloud consumer for billing purposes. Select the correct answer.
A. automated scaling listener
B. pay-for-use monitor
C. multi-device broker
D. resource replicator
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
A virtual server is being attacked by a malicious cloud service consumer that is generating increased usage loads upon the underlying physical server. As a result, other virtual servers being hosted by the physical server are becoming unavailable to other cloud service consumers. This kind of attack is known as: . Select the correct answer.
A. denial of service
B. overlapping trust boundary
C. insufficient authorization
D. buffer overrun
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 19
represents the ability of a cloud platform to keep track of the usage of its IT resources by cloud consumers, and is therefore directly related to the mechanism. Select the correct answer.
A. Replicated usage, cloud monitor
B. Measured usage, pay-for-use monitor
C. Agent usage, on-premise monitor
D. None of the above.
70-414 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
A is a mechanism used to temporarily persist certain types of data as an alternative to caching the data in memory. Select the correct answer.
A. resource replicator
B. state management database
C. failover system
D. multi-device broker
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the ubiquitous access cloud characteristic? Select the correct answer.
A. failover System
B. multi-device broker
C. ready-made environment
D. virtual server
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the elasticity cloud characteristic? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. virtual server
B. automated scaling listener
C. resource replication
D. pay-for-use monitor
Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the multitenancy cloud characteristic? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. automated scaling listener
B. failover system
C. resource replication
D. virtual server
70-414 pdf 
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 24
Performance testing on Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) implementations is almost always carried out with a white box testing approach that does not involve the use of automated testing software.
Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following can be the result of a successful malicious intermediary attack? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The confidentiality of a message is comprised.
B. The integrity of a message is comprised.
C. Private or sensitive data within a message is accessed by the attacker.
D. Harmful data is inserted into a message.
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Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 26
is a form of dynamic routing whereby a cloud service consumer’s request is redirected to one of several redundant IT resources located on different clouds. Select the correct answer.
A. Cloud balancing
B. Cloud bursting
C. Replication leveling
D. Virtual state caching
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following are data storage levels used by cloud-based storage mechanisms? Select the correct answer.
A. dataset
B. files
C. block
D. All of the above.
70-414 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
It is possible to make ten virtual servers available via two physical servers. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 29
The cloud service consumer sends its authentication to the security broker. After successful authentication, the security broker responds with an authentication with which the cloud service consumer can access other cloud services. This describes how the security mechanism works. Select the correct answer.
A. token, acknowledgement certificate, certificate authority
B. credentials, token, single sign-on
C. certificate, message, certificate authority
D. certificate, key, single sign-on
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following technologies can be used to build cloud services? Select the correct answer.
A. Web services
B. REST services
C. components
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following are classified as access-oriented threats? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. denial of service
B. malicious intermediary
C. overlapping trust boundary
D. virtualization attack
70-414 pdf 
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 32
A virtual server is a form of software that emulates a(n)
computer. Select the correct answer.
A. virtual monitoring, on-premise
B. virtual monitoring, cloud-based
C. virtualization, physical
D. virtualization, logical
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Information that is encrypted is referred to as . Select the correct answer.
A. cleartext
B. ciphertext
C. plaintext
D. secret text
70-414 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
A is a pre-defined cloud-based platform comprised of a set of already installed IT resources that can be used and customized by a cloud consumer. Select the correct answer.
A. failover system
B. pay-for-use monitor
C. ready-made environment
D. multi-device broker
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms are directly associated with the realization of the measured usage cloud characteristic? Select the correct answer.
A. automated scaling listener
B. pay-for-use monitor
C. resource replication
D. state management database
70-414 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following are established industry standards used with SOAP-based Web services? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. WADL/JSON
B. SOAP
C. XML Schema
D. WSDL
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 37
White box testing is commonly used with which of the following cloud delivery models? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
C. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
D. Replicated Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
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Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 38
When using the single sign-on security mechanism, a cloud service consumer is limited to being authenticated by a single cloud service. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)
QUESTION 30
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com. All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover cluster. Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS) name space folder target. After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to ABC AppData is highly available. You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication. Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
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The Branch site contains a perimeter network. For security reasons, client computers in the perimeter network can communicate with client computers in the Branch site only. You plan to deploy a new RODC to the perimeter network in the Branch site. You need to ensure that the new RODC will be able to replicate from DC10. What should you do first on DC10?
A. Run dcpromo and specify the /createdcaccount parameter.
B. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.

C. Run the Add-ADDSReadOnlyDomainControllerAccount cmdlet.
D. Enable the Bridge all site links setting.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. One of the domain controllers is named DC1. The DNS zone for the contoso.com zone is Active Directory-integrated and has the default settings.
A server named Server1 is a DNS server that runs a UNIX-based operating system. You plan to use Server1 as a secondary DNS server for the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that Server1 can host a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerForwarder cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerSetting cmdlet and specify DC1 as a target.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
D. From DNS Manager, modify the Advanced settings of DC1.
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which three statements are true about the TIBCO BusinessEvents Monitoring and Management
A. TIBCO Hawk is required for monitoring of machine level metrics.
B. COPSSH is required for monitoring of machine level metrics.
C. Memory-based object management is supported.
D. Cache-based object management is required.
E. Monitored agents and nodes must belong to the same cluster.
F. Monitored agents and nodes can belong to different clusters.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which resource type describes a SOAP web service exposed from TIBCO BusinessEvents?
A. SOAP event definition
B. XSDfile
C. WSDLfile
D. HTTP channel
70-412 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What are three valid SimpleEvent attributes? (Choose three.)
A. @id
B. @ttl
C. @destination
D. @payload
E. @closure
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which two functions does the TIBCO BusinessEvents Studio Tools utility provide? (Choose two.)
A. Validates BE studio projects
B. Builds enterprise archives
C. Imports existing TIBCO BusinessEvents 4.x projects
D. Executes rule test suites
70-412 vce Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
What are three TIBCO BusinessEvents 5 modeling types? (Choose three.)
A. RuleSet Models
B. Rule Models
C. Workflow Models
D. Event Models
E. Process Models
F. State Models
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which three statements are true about database concepts? (Choose three.)
A. Database constraints are interpreted as referenced or contained concepts.
B. Database views can be imported as database concepts.
C. Database concepts support history tracking.
D. Database views can be imported as Domain Models.
E. Database columns can be imported as Domain Models.
70-412 exam Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which two statements are true about a Fault Tolerant agent in standby mode? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains a passive RETE network.
B. It listens to events from channels.
C. It does not execute startup rule functions.
D. It updates working memory.
E. It reads and writes to cache.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which three types of Query windows use a condition to limit the lifecycle of entities in the window? (Choose three.)
A. Tumbling
B. Implicit
C. Rolling
D. Time
E. Sliding
F. Boundary
70-412 dumps Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Given the following two identical rules matching the criteria:
– RuleA with priority 3
– RuleB with priority 5
Which two statements are true about RTC execution? (Choose two.)
A. RuleB may not be triggered.
B. RuleA may not be triggered.
C. The agenda will be recomputed after the first rule’s actions finish.
D. The rules’ actions may be executed in parallel
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
What are two valid approaches for implementing a TIBCO BusinessEvents web service? (Choose two.)
A. Top-down
B. Inside-out
C. Upside-down
D. Bottom-up
70-412 pdf Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
What are three functions of be-engine.exe? (Choose three.)
A. Installs TIBCO BusinessEvents application as a service
B. Adds a new Processing Unit to CDD
C. Starts debugger service for remote debugging
D. Generates new EAR files
E. Starts a Processing Unit from CDD
F. Validates a CDD file
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What are two valid database write strategies when backing store is used to store TIBCO BusinessEvents objects? (Choose two.)
A. Write-behind
B. Write-ahead
C. Cache-aside
D. Sync-write
70-412 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Question No: 46 What Implementation & Migration Extension concept is used to model the outcome of an analysis of the differences between two architectural states?
A. Transition
B. Gap
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable
Answer: B
The Application Co-operation viewpoint describes the relationships between application components in terms of the information flows between them, or in terms of the services they offer and use.
Question No: 47 Which of the following concepts cannot be used in an Application Co-operation view?
A. Business object
B. Location
C. Application interface
D. Data object
70-412  exam Answer: A
All ArchiSurance divisions use a Claims Adjudication Process specific to their lines of business to determine whether a claim should be paid as well as the payment amount. Consider the following diagram:
Question No: 48 – (Topic 1) Which of the following statements is expressed by the diagram?
A. The Claims Adjudication Process realizes the Claim File
B. Claims are filed after the Claims Adjudication process is complete
C. The Claims Adjudication team relies on the Claim File to get its work done
D. The Claims Adjudication process accesses the Claim File
Answer: D
Question No: 49 – (Topic 1)
The ArchiMate modeling language can be used to describe different types of architecture and the relationships between them. Which of the following lists the three main layers of the ArchiMate language?
A. Business, Information, and Application
B. Application, Data, and Technology
C. Business, Application, and Technology
D. Business, Integration, and Infrastructure
70-412 dumps Answer: C
Maya has been working for ArchiSurance for five years. The following diagram describes her responsibilities:
Question No: 50 – (Topic 1) Which of the following answers best interprets the diagram?
A. Maya works with the Senior Underwriter who works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
B. Maya supervises a Senior Underwriter who works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
C. In her Senior Underwriter role, Maya supervises separate teams that work directly on complex cases and review simple ones
D. In her Senior Underwriter role, Maya works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
Answer: D
Consider the following diagram:
Question No: 51 – (Topic 1) What does the diagram express about the structure of the Underwriting Application?
A. The Underwriting Application groups together a number of modules that are either free standing or part of other applications
B. The Underwriting Application is composed of three application components
C. The Underwriting Application invokes three other modules
D. The Underwriting Application performs three functions
70-412 pdf Answer: B
Question No: 52 – (Topic 1) Consider the following entities commonly found in a typical large organization:
1. A chief executive
2. A software application for financial management
3. A human resources department
4. Server hardware that is used to host business applications
What is the single ArchiMate aspect in the ArchiMate Framework that describes all these entities?
A. Passive structure
B. Business structure
C. Behavior
D. Active structure
Answer: D
Question No: 53 – (Topic 1) Which standard ArchiMate viewpoint focuses on the (internal) structure of a company, a department, or a network of companies, and identifies authorities and responsibilities?
A. Actor Co-operation viewpoint
B. Organizational viewpoint
C. Business Function viewpoint
D. Business Process Co-operation viewpoint
70-412 vce Answer: B
Question No: 54  – (Topic 1)  Which ArchiMate concept describes the behavior of a business collaboration?
A. A business interaction
B. A business event
C. A business process
D. A business service
Answer: A
Question No: 55 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram using the Implementation and Migration extension: Which of the following statements correctly describes the concepts shown in the diagram?
A. Business processes
B. Plateau and deliverables
C. Project components
D. Work packages
70-412 exam Answer: D
Consider the following diagram, which shows a relationship between two business objects:
Question No: 56  All of the systems in a VCS cluster have two private heartbeat links and are connected to the public network, but the cluster does not have any available shared disks. Which addition would DECREASE the chances of the cluster from entering jeopardy?
A. disk heartbeats
B. a service group heartbeat
C. a low priority heartbeat
D. multiplexed heartbeats
Answer: C
Question No: 57 What is the minimum number of heartbeat links that are required to startup VCS without immediately entering jeopardy?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-412 dumps Answer: B
Question No: 58 Consider the following output of a gabconfig a command: On how many private network links is GAB properly communicating on?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question No: 59 Is it possible for two separate VCS clusters to share a common private heartbeat network assuming NO shared disk for disk-based heartbeats is available?
A. not possible: each cluster must always use a separate heartbeat network
B. not possible: requires shared disk heartbeats between the clusters
C. possible: assign different LLT cluster IDs to each of the clusters
D. possible: ensure that all LLT node IDs are unique across the clusters
70-412 pdf Answer: C
Question No: 60 Which command is used to verify that GAB is active on a cluster system?
A. gabstat -v
B. gabstat -a
C. gabconfig -v
D. gabconfig -a
Answer: D
Question No: 61 The VCS notifier was configured during VCS installation. Which resource type will be added to the VCS configuration in order to start the notification process?
A. Process
B. Notifier
C. NotifierMngr
D. Application
70-412 vce Answer: C
Question No: 62 How many systems in the cluster can the NotifierMngr run on at one time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. an unlimited number
Answer: A
Question No: 63 During VCS installation, the VCS notifier is to be configured to send messages to the SNMP console named snmpserv. Which two additional pieces of information are needed to configure the notifier for SNMP? (Choose two.)
A. the location of the SNMP VCS MIB
B. the port number to use on the console
C. the email address of the user to whom to send traps
D. severity of messages to send to the console
E. the username on the system in which to send the messages
70-412 exam Answer: BD
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Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)

QUESTION 91
Which three options describe how SNMPv3 traps can be securely configured to be sent by IOS? (Choose three.)
A. An SNMPv3 group is defined to configure the read and write views of the group.
B. An SNMPv3 user is assigned to SNMPv3 group and defines the encryption and authentication credentials.
C. An SNMPv3 host is configured to define where the SNMPv3 traps will be sent.
D. An SNMPv3 host is used to configure the encryption and authentication credentials for SNMPv3 traps.
E. An SNMPv3 view is defined to configure the address of where the traps will be sent.
F. An SNMPv3 group is used to configure the OIDs that will be reported.
300-206 exam Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0 interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1
mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1
mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1
one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 93
What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?
A. Trace
B. Debug
C. Informational
D. Critical
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which command sets the source IP address of the NetFlow exports of a device?
A. ip source flow-export
B. ip source netflow-export
C. ip flow-export source
D. ip netflow-export source
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which two SNMPv3 features ensure that SNMP packets have been sent securely?” Choose two.
A. host authorization
B. authentication
C. encryption
D. compression
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which three logging methods are supported by Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. console logging
B. TACACS+ logging
C. terminal logging
D. syslog logging
E. ACL logging
F. RADIUS logging
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
300-206 vce Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which two parameters must be configured before you enable SCP on a router? (Choose two.)
A. SSH
B. authorization
C. ACLs
D. NTP
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 99
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase

B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
300-206 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?
A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation
300-206 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.

300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 117
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
A. Earned value management.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Organizational process updates
B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements
300-206 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 24.
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables,
B. Final products or services,
C. Document updates,
D. Work performance information.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Activity lists.
C. A work breakdown structure.
D. A scope statement.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:
A. Customers.
B. Business partners.
C. Sellers.
D. Functional managers.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
300-206 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 131
Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management
C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit

B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail
depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 136
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Performance reporting.
C. Bidder conferences.
D. Reserve analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 137
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 139
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: A
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300-115 dumps

Latest Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (Januaryr 2018)

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration

C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and  analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter

B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams

300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
Correct Answer: D

300-115 dumps

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Latest Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-331 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)
QUESTION 173
You need to ensure that corporate search guidelines are followed. What rule should you create? (To answer, select the appropriate option from each drop-down list in the answer area.)
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QUESTION 174
You need to resolve the authentication issue that occurs in the SharePoint environment. What should you do?
A. Deploy the Secure Store Service.
B. Use classic mode authentication and set the authentication type to NTLM.
C. Use the Distributed Cache service.
D. Use classic mode authentication and set the authentication type to Kerberos.
70-331 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 175
You need to implement Office 365 authentication. What should you do?
A. Create a two-way trust between proseware.com and adatum.com.

B. Deploy an AD FS proxy for the proseware.com domain.
C. Create an AD DS domain named proseware.com and join the AD FS servers to the proseware.com domain.
D. Add adatum.com and proseware.com as Office 365 SSO domains and use the SupportMultipleDomain parameter.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 176
You need to ensure that profile information about contractors and employees is available in search results. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 177
You need to provide access to the Corporate Projects site collection to remote internal users. Which authentication mode and site collection URL should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate answer choices to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 178
In an existing deployment, all connections appear to be unoptimized. The Current Connections page lists the connections as pass-through. The logs indicate admission control “Jan 19 18:44:56 client sport[343]: [admission_control.WARN] Pausing intercept.” What are some possible ways to alleviate the problem? (Select 2)
A. Verify that there is no SMB Signing on the server
B. Ensure that there are no Opportunistic Lock issues
C. Disable or reduce the connection timeout of MAPI prepopulation
D. Investigate if there is a virus on a client trying to propagate itself
E. Validate that NFS v2 broadcasts are enabled
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 179
You need to take a full packet trace from the WAN interface of a Steelhead appliance to send into technical support. Which of the following commands will achieve this assuming typical Ethernet MTU? (Select 2)
A. tcpdump i wan0_0 s 0 w filename
B. tcpdump i wan0_0 s 1500 w filename
C. tcpdump I wan0_0 w filename
D. tcpdump i wan0_0 w filename
E. tcpdump I wan0_0 s 1500 w filename
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 180
Which of the following commands would allow you to generate a system dump from the CLI?
A. sysdump
B. dump generate
C. debug generate dump
D. sysdump generate dump
E. dump generate w filename
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 181
The Optimization service has been disabled on a Steelhead appliance. Which of the following events occur as a result?
A. LAN and WAN interfaces stop intercepting
B. Primary interface becomes disabled
C. AUX interface becomes disabled
D. The Steelhead appliance reboots
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 182
Which section of the Steelhead appliance Management Console can help identify speed/duplex errors? (Select 2)
A. View Logs
B. Current Connections

C. Alarm Status
D. Interface Statistics
E. Monitored Ports
70-331 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 183
A customer with a new physical in-path installation decides to turn on the optimization service during lunch time on a working day. This is done so that he can see if the users perceive any performance improvement. When starting the optimization service, he does not enable the in- path kickoff option. Assuming there were several already active connections when he starts the optimization service, how will the Steelhead appliances handle these existing connections?
A. The Steelhead appliance will optimize all connections, including pre-existing
B. The Steelhead appliance will pass-through all pre-existing connections, leaving them un- optimized
C. The Steelhead appliance will reset all pre-existing connections, thus automatically changing their optimization status from un-optimized to optimized
D. The Steelhead appliance will list the connections as “pre-existing” on the Current Connections page
E. Both B and D
F. Both C and D
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 184
You need to perform a tcpdump of traffic entering the Steelhead appliance’s lan0_0 interface. Which of the following demonstrate the proper command format to perform the tcpdump and capture to a file?
A. tcpdump p lan0_0 S 300 w lancap.cap
B. tcpdump i lan0_0 s 300 w lancap.cap
C. tcpdump i lan0_0
D. tcpdump I lan0_0 s 300
E. tcpdump i lan0_0 -3 300 r lancap.cap
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 185
In a new physical in-path deployment, you realize that a Steelhead appliance at one of your branch offices is optimizing connections from other sites, however, no connections initiated from that branch office are being optimized. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Duplex mismatch
B. Bilateral Opportunistic Lock failure
C. Policy-based routing incorrectly configured
D. Reversed WAN and LAN cabling
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
When troubleshooting a datastore wrapping alarm with 1 day wrapping notification configured, which of the following should be examined? (Select 2)
A. If the unit was mis-sized
B. If stream based encrypted traffic is being sent across the link as optimized
C. If your fixed-target rules are pointing to the correct Steelhead appliance
D. If Connection Forwarding was properly configured
70-331 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 187
What should you do when you receive the following message?
A. Nothing. This is a warning message which means that the Steelhead appliance is resetting an internal state regarding this connection and it should not affect user performance.
B. Switch off the Steelhead appliance
C. Create a specific pass-through rule to bypass the above source and destination hosts
D. Reload the Steelhead appliance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 188
What should you do when you receive the following message? [intercept.NOTICE] sending kickoff RST:
10.35.178.41:1169 -> 10.110.141.30:1031.
A. Nothing. This is just a notice message.
B. Verify whether the “Reset Existing Client Connections on Start Up” option is checked and uncheck it
C. Switch off the Steelhead appliance
D. Create a specific pass-through rule to bypass the above source and destination hosts
E. Restart the Steelhead appliance
70-331 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit.
In the accompanying exhibit, SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize FTP and HTTP sessions between Client41 and the respective application hosts Server31 and Server32. However, optimization does not happen for
  Client42 and these application hosts. A quick check on SH3 and SH4 registers neither optimized nor pass through traffic from Client42. Client42 is able to ping Client41 and the in-path address of SH4. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto-discovery mode. What is the likely cause?
A. The default gateway of Client41 is configured wrong
B. The default gateway of Client42 is configured wrong
C. The default gateway of SH3 is configured wrong
D. The default gateway of SH4 is configured wrong
E. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit.
SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize FTP and HTTP sessions between Client41 and the respective application hosts Server31 and Server32. However, optimization seems to be a problem for Client42 and these application hosts. A quick check on SH3 and SH4 registers neither optimized nor pass-through traffic from Client42. Client42 is able to ping to both Server31 and Server32. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto discovery mode. What is the likely cause?
A. The default gateway of Client41 is configured wrong
B. The default gateway of Client42 is configured wrong
C. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies TCP traffic from Client42
D. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
70-331 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit.
SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize HTTP sessions from Client41 to application host Server31. However, Client41 receives a failure messagE. “ftp connect: Unknown error number” while trying to connect Server32. The same applies to Client42. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto- discovery mode. Client41 and Client42 are able to ping Server32. What is the most likely cause of this failure?
A. The network interface card (NIC) at Server32 is down
B. The FTP service running in Server32 is down
C. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies IP traffic from Client41 and Client42
D. An outbound access-list specified at R3f0 denies FTP control traffic from Client41 and Client42
E. The routing protocol between R3 and R4 is configured wrong
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit.
A connection times out when Client41 and Client42 attempt to either establish an HTTP session to Server31 or an FTP connection to Server32 after not connecting to them for some time. The very next attempt to connect to these services done immediately after the failure seems to work correctly. The clients are able to ping both servers and no access-lists are configured on the routers. SH3 uses the IP address of R3f0 as its default gateway. Upon powering off SH3 and SH4, the problem goes away even for first connection and everything works normally (even after not connecting for extended periods of time). Which of the following are likely to correct this problem?
A. Both servers have faulty network interface cards and should be replaced
B. Both the HTTP service running in Server31 and the FTP service running in Server32 are down and should be restarted
C. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at SH3
D. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at R3
E. A more specific static route pointing to Subnet 31 is not configured at L3 Switch
Correct Answer: C
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Question No : 9 How is a password set on the BlackBerry Device?
A. Options -> Security-> Password -> Device Password
B. Settings-> Security-> Security and Privacy-> Device Password
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Options -> Device Password
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Settings -> Device Password
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Answer: B
Question No : 10 Which of the following is an essential aid to investigate a problem experienced on a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) smartphone when being reported to BlackBerry?
A. Playbook
B. BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) server name
C. The location of the device
D. The time of occurrence and the device logs
Answer: D
Question No : 11 When a BlackBerry 10 (BB10) device is connected to a computer, the internal storage devices such as the inserted micro SD card are not mounted and mapped to drive letters. What is the most likely cause and how can it be corrected?
A. The host computer has used the drive letters reserved for BlackBerry mapped drives. These drives will need to be moved to allow the BlackBerry drive letters to be assigned to the BB10.
B. The BlackBerry Device Manager is not installed on the host computer and the BB10 will not have the capability to mount the internal storage devices as drive letters. Install the BlackBerry Device Driver and retry the connection.
C. The BlackBerry Mapped Network Device driver is not loaded, the BlackBerry Device Manager requires this driver to map the internal BB10 storage devices to drive letters. Install the required driver from Windows Update and try again.
D. The Wi-Fi radio has been turned off, and this prevents the BB10 from accepting the mapped drive request from the BlackBerry Device Manager. Turn on the Wi-Fi radio and retry the connection.
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Answer: B
Question No : 12  What happens when a user activates a Playbook in addition to a smartphone on the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. The smartphone stops communication with the server
B. The smartphone has a popup to choose the device to continue communication with the BDS.
C. Both the Playbook and the smartphone will continue to work since the BDS supports multiple devices per user.
D. The devices with the most memory free will stay enabled, and the other devices are disabled from the BDS automatically.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
The data de-duplication system checks each block of data to determine whether it is _____________with a block that has already been received. The ______________ blocks are replaced with pointers to their equivalent blocks that are already in storage.
A. combined,combined
B. scaled, scaled
C. redundant,redundant
D. load balanced, load balanced
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
The cloud architecture that results from the application of the __________________ pattern relies on the _____________mechanism to synchronize cloud storage devices.
A. Synchronized Operating State. resource cluster
B. Redundant Storage, resource replication
C. Zero Downtime, hypervisor
D. Service Load Balancing, failover system
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The _____________pattern is applied to dynamically allocate and reclaim physical uplinks, whenever _____________become bottlenecks.
A. Elastic Resource Capacity, virtual firewalls
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, failed network ports
C. Elastic Resource Capacity, network cards
D. Elastic Network Capacity, virtual switches
300-360 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
In a cloud architecture resulting from the application of the Cloud Bursting compound pattern, the _________________ mechanism is used to maintain synchronizing between a cloud consumer’s on-premise and cloud-based IT resources.
A. hypervisor
B. resource pooling
C. automated scaling listener
D. resource replication
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied together with the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern, so that a hypervisor can be initiated by _____________to allocate more resources for a virtual server.
A. a watchdog monitor
B. a pay-per-use monitor
C. an intelligent automation engine script
D. an automatic scaling listener
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern is applied to resolve issues caused by:
A. Multiple cloud storage devices that need to vertically scale at the same time
B. Cloud consumers that are limited to using one cloud storage device to store multiple applications and services
C. Different disktypesacross redundant cloud storage devices that use different storage methods
D. Cloud consumers that have cloud storage devices in different geographical regions that need to be combined
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
The system resulting from the application of the Direct LUN Access pattern allows virtual servers to see LUN5 as directly accessible file-based storage.
A. True
B. False
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
The cloud architecture that is established by the application of the Storage Workload Management pattern can rely on the storage capacity monitor to: (Choose Two)
A. notify the storage capacity system whenever a cloud storage device is being over-utilized
B. migrate LUN5 to different cloud storage devices
C. detect when the workload of a cloud storage device has reached a pre-defined threshold
D. act as an external interlace to a cloud storage service
Answer: A,C
Question No : 21 Where can saved VPN Profiles be located on the BlackBerry Smartphone?
A. Options, Security. VPN
B. Settings. Network Settings. VPN
C. Options. Wi-Fi. VPN
D. Settings. VPN
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Answer: B
Question No : 22 What is the name of the Blackberry desktop client for BlackBerry 10 (BB10)?
A. Device Manager
B. WebDesktop
C. BlackBerry Link
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager for BB10
Answer: C
Question No : 23 A user is experiencing difficulty activating a second device using BlackBerry® Web Desktop Manager. What should be checked in BlackBerry Administration Console to ensure a second device can be activated?
A. License limit
B. BlackBerry Controller
C. Email profile
D. Enterprise Proxy
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Answer: A
Question No : 25 If the owner wishes to continue without signing into or creating a BlackBerry ID when first using a BlackBerry smartphone, what limitations or actions will be encountered?
A. The out of box experience will not complete and the BlackBerry smartphone will remain on the BlackBerry ID screen and persist through device restarts as a valid ID is required to use the BlackBerry smartphone.
B. The BlackBerry smartphone will restart and present the out of box experience from the initial Welcome to BlackBerry screen if an attempt is made to bypass the screen by swiping left.
C. The out of box experience can be completed, but access to BlackBerry apps and services such as downloading applications from BlackBerry App World and setting up BlackBerry Messenger (BBM) will not be available until a BlackBerry ID is associated to the
BlackBerry smartphone.
D. The out of box experience will complete and access to BlackBerry services will be blocked until a security wipe is performed and a BlackBerry ID is associated to the smartphone during the subsequent out of box experience.
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Answer: C
Question No : 26 What are the two perimeters set when a smartphone/Tablet is activated on a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. Enterprise and Home
B. Work and Personal
C. Server and Personal
D. Work and Home
Answer: B
Question No : 27  A user who does not have Roaming services would like to get data while travelling at no cost. What service needs to be enabled to access Hot Spots?
A. Bluetooth
B. Cellular connection
C. International Roaming
D. Wi-Fi
300-360 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 28 Where can ‘new email’ notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notification -> Messages
B. Options -> Notification -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages
Answer: A
Question No : 29 What constitutes use of a license seat on a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. A user
B. Active user
C. Active devices
D. Active user and devices
300-360 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 30 A user reports that their Email account is reporting an error that states “Your Device is not connected to a network “. What is the cause?
A. Bluetooth radio is not connected to the wireless network
B. Wireless carrier data is not connected
C. Wi-Fi radio is enabled
D. NFC is connected to external device
Answer: B
Question No : 31 Email automatically moved to a subfolder in the mailbox, from an account integrated using Active Sync, is not seen in the Hub. Which of the options below best describes the process to ensure folder sync has been configured?
A. While in BlackBerry Hub, select Option pane (3 seashells, dots), navigate to Settings, Email Account Preferences, and select the integrated Active Sync account, select Folder Settings and verify or select the subfolders for synchronization.
B. Pull down top panel with a downward bezel swipe, select Settings, Accounts and select the integrated Active Sync account, select Edit Folder Settings.
C. Open the Setup application from the home screen, select Accounts, select Set Defaults and select the integrated Active Sync account, open Folder Synchronization and verify or select the desired subfolders.
D. While in the BlackBerry Hub, open the Options panel, select Inbox Management, open the integrated Active Sync account and select Edit Folder Settings and verify or select the desired subfolders.
300-360 vce Answer: B
Question No : 32  Which of the following resources would enable a user who has lost a device to ensure that their contact information is displayed on their BlackBerry?
A. BlackBerry Protect
B. BlackBerry Lost and Found
C. App World
D. BlackBerry Help
Answer: A
Question No : 33
A user reports getting a 403 error while trying to configure their e-mail account. What is the most likely cause?
A. The user is not provisioned for data services.
B. The user* s password has been mistyped.
C. ActiveSync is currently off-line.
D. ActiveSync is not configured with Autodiscover.
300-360 exam Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
You need to recommend a Windows Server 2008 R2 server configuration that meets the following requirements:
Supports the installation of Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Provides redundancy for SQL services if a single server fails What should you recommend?
A. Install a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
B. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard on two servers. Configure Network Load Balancing on the two servers.
C. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure Network Load Balancing on the two servers.
D. Install a full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Fail Over Clustering, which is available on the Enterprise edition (not on standard) will provide fail over as required.
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition is the version of the operating system targeted at large businesses. Plan to deploy this version of Windows 2008 on servers that will run applications such as SQL Server 2008 Enterprise Edition and Exchange Server 2007. These products require the extra processing power and RAM that Enterprise Edition supports. When planning deployments, consider Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition in situations that require the following technologies unavailable in Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition:
Failover Clustering I-ail over clustering is a technology that allows another server to continue to service client requests in the event that the original server fails. Clustering is covered in more detail in Chapter 11. “Clustering and High Availability.” You deploy failover clustering on mission critical servers to ensure that important resources are available even if a server hosting those resources fails.

QUESTION NO: 2
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. Your main office has an Internet connection. Your company plans to open a branch office. The branch office will connect to the main office by using a WAN link. The WAN link will have limited bandwidth. The branch office will not have access to the Internet. The branch office will contain 30 Windows Server 2008 R2 servers. You need to plan the deployment of the servers in the branch office.
The deployment must meet the following requirements:
Installations must be automated.
Computers must be automatically activated.
Network traffic between the offices must be minimized.
What should you include in your plan?
A. In the branch office, implement Key Management Service (KMS), a DHCP server, and Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
B. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent Activation on the servers. In the main office, implement a DHCP server and Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
C. In the main office, implement Windows Deployment Services (WDS). In the branch office, implement a DHCP server and implement the Key Management Service (KMS).
D. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent Activation on the servers. In the main office, implement a DHCP server. In the branch office, implement Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
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Answer: A
Explanation:
The key here is that bandwidth from the branch to the main office is limited and there is no direct link to MS. WDS and Product Activation. Although product activation does not need to occur during the actual installation process, administrators considering using WDS to automate deployment should also consider using volume activation to automate activation. Volume activation provides a simple centralized method that systems administrators can use for the activation of large numbers of deployed servers. Volume activation allows for two types of keys and three methods of activation. The key types are the Multiple Activation Key (MAK) and the Key Management Services (KMS) key. Multiple Activation Keys allow activation of a specific number of computers. Each successful activation depletes the activation pool. For example, a MAK key that has 100 activations allows for the activation of 100 computers. The Multiple Activation Key can use the MAK Proxy Activation and the MAK Independent Activation activation methods. MAK Proxy Activation uses a centralized activation request on behalf of multiple products using a single connection to Microsoft’s activation
servers. MAK Independent Activation requires that each computer activates individually against Microsoft’s activation servers. The Branch office has no internet connection, so MAK is not the solution. KMS requires at least 25 computers connecting before activation can occur, and activation must be renewed by reconnecting to the KMS server every 180 days. You can use KMS and MAK in conjunction with one another. The number of computers, how often they connect to the network, and whether there is Internet connectivity determines which solution you should deploy. You should deploy MAK if substantial numbers of computers do not connect to the network for more than 180 days. If there is no Internet connectivity and more than 25 computers, you should deploy KMS. If there is no Internet connectivity and less than 25 computers, you will need to use MAK and activate each system over the telephone.
QUESTION NO: 3
Your network contains a Webbased Application that runs on Windows Server 2003. You plan to migrate the Webbased Application to Windows Server 2008 R2. You need to recommend a server configuration to support the Webbased Application.
The server configuration must meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the Application is available to all users if a single server fails
Support the installation of .NET Applications
Minimize software costs
What should you recommend?
A. Install the Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard on two servers. Configure the servers in a Network Load Balancing cluster.
B. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Web on two servers. Configure the servers in a Network Load Balancing cluster.
C. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
D. Install the full installation of Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter on two servers. Configure the servers in a failover cluster.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Web Edition meets the requirements
Windows Web Server 2008 R2
Windows Web Server 2008 R2 is designed to function specifically as a Web application server. Other roles, such as Windows Deployment Server and Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), are not supported on Windows Web Server 2008 R2. You deploy this server role either on a screened subnet to support a website viewable to external hosts or as an intranet server. As appropriate given its stripped-down role, Windows Web Server 2008 R2 does not support the high-powered hardware configurations that other editions of Windows Server 2008 R2 do. Windows Web Server 2008 R2 has the following properties: Supports a maximum of 32 GB of RAM and 4 sockets in symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) configuration You should plan to deploy Windows Web Server 2008 R2 in the Server Core configuration, which minimizes its attack surface, something that is very important on a server that interacts with hosts
external to your network environment. You should plan to deploy the full version of Windows Web Server 2008 R2 only if your organization’s web applications rely on features that are not available in the Server Core version of Windows Web Server 2008 R2. Unlike the Server Core version of Windows Web Server 2008, Windows Web Server 2008 R2 supports a greater amount of Internet
Information Services (IIS) functionality.
Configuring Windows Network Load Balancing
While DNS Round Robin is a simple way of distributing requests, Windows Server 2008 NLB is a much more robust form of providing high availability to applications. Using NLB, an administrator can configure multiple servers to operate as a single cluster and control the usage ot the cluster in near real-time.
Why Failover Cluster will not work.
Contrast DNS Round Robin and NLB with Failover Clustering, another availability technology in Windows Server 2008. Formerly known as server clustering, Failover Clustering creates a group of computers that all have access lo the same data store or disk resource or network share. The applicationsjunning on aJailoverCluster must be cluster-aware. Failover Clustering has had some changes since Windows Server 2003. Lesson 2 will cover these changes.
QUESTION NO: 4
Your company purchases 15 new 64bit servers as follows:
Five of the servers have a single processor.
Five of the servers have a single dual core processor.
Five of the servers have two quad core processors.
You plan to deploy Windows Server 2008 R2 on the new servers by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to recommend a WDS install image strategy that meets the following requirements:
Minimizes the number of install images
Supports the deployment of Windows Server 2008 R2
What should you recommend?
A. one install image file that contains three install images
B. one install image file that contains a single install image
C. two install image files that each contain a single install image
D. three install image files that each contain a single install image
70-646 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
You only need one image per processor type
Windows Deployment Services Images
Windows Deployment Services uses two different types of images: install images and boot images. Install images are the operating system images that will be deployed to Windows Server 2008 or Windows Vista client computers. A default installation image is located in the \Sources directory of the Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008 installation DVDs. If you are using WDS to deploy Windows Server 2008 to computers with different processor architectures, you will need to add separate installation images for each architecture to the WDS server. Architecture-specific images can be found on the architecture-specific installation media. For example, the Itanium
image is located on the Itanium installation media and the x64 default installation image is located on the x64 installation media. Although you can create custom images, you only need to have one image per processor architecture. For example, deploying Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition x64 to a computer with 1 x64 processor and to a computer with 8 x64 processors in SMP
configuration only requires access to the default x64 installation image. Practice exercise 2 at the end of this lesson covers the specifics ol adding a default installation image to a WDS server.
QUESTION NO: 5
Your network contains a single Active Directory site.You plan to deploy 1,000 new computers that will run Windows 7 Enterprise. The new computers have Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) network adapters.You need to plan the deployment of the new computers to meet the following requirements:
·Support 50 simultaneous installations of Windows 7
·Minimize the impact of network operations during the deployment of the new computers
·Minimize the amount of time required to install Windows 7 on the new computers
What should you include in your plan?
A. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role. Configure the IP Helper tables on all routers.
B. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role. Configure each WDS server by using native mode.
C. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role and the Transport Server feature. Configure the Transport Server to use a custom network profile.
D. Deploy the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server role and the Transport Server feature. Configure the Transport Server to use a static multicast address range.
70-646 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:

WDS Multicast Server
Updated: November 21, 2007
Applies To: Windows Server 2008
The multicast server deploys an image to a large number of client computers concurrently without overburdening the network. When you create a multicast transmission for an image, the data is sent over the network only once, which can drastically reduce the network bandwidth that is used.

This topic only applies to Windows Server 2008. If you have Windows Server 2008 R2, see Configuring Transport Server. You have two options when installing the Windows Deployment Services role in Windows Server 2008. You can install both the Deployment Server and Transport Server role services (which is the 
default) or you can install only the Transport Server role service. The second configuration is for advanced scenarios, such as environments without Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Domain Name System (DNS), or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP). You can configure Transport Server to enable you to boot from the network using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE) and Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP), a multicast server, or both. Note that Transport Server does not contain or support the Windows Deployment Services image store. Configure how to obtain IP addresses. If multiple servers are using multicast functionality on a network (Transport Server, Deployment Server, or another solution), it is important that each server is configured so that the multicast IP addresses do not collide. Otherwise, you may encounter excessive traffic when you enable multicasting. Note that each Windows Deployment Services server will have the same default range. To work around this issue, specify static ranges that do not overlap to ensure that each server is using a unique IP address, or configure each of the servers to obtain multicast addresses from a Multicast Address Dynamic Client Allocation Protocol (MADCAP) server. The server architectures are illustrated in the following diagram. The blue parts are installed with Transport Server and the Deployment Server. The grey parts are installed with the Deployment Server only. The yellow parts are not installed with either, but can be written using guidelines in the Windows SDK.
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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Q&As: 219

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23.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Executive employees have been assigned E3 licenses. Non-executive employees have been assigned El licenses. An employee who is not on the executive team wants to communicate with executive team members by using Microsoft Lync instant messaging. You need to ensure that the employee can use Lync. What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and use Office on Demand.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then run the Office 365 Desktop Setup.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install Office 365 ProPlus.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 portal and then download and install the Lync Basic desktop client.
070-347 exam Answer: D
24.DRAG DROP
Your company uses Office 365.You are planning a user-driven deployment of Office 365 ProPlus. You need to provide users with the minimum requirements for running Office 365 ProPlus. Which requirements should you provide? To answer, drag the appropriate requirements to the correct targets. Each requirement may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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25.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company is deploying Office 365 ProPlus.
The company has the following deployment requirements:
– Office applications must be installed from a local network location by using a self-service model.
– Office application updates must not be deployed until they have been tested for compatibility.
– The installation of Office applications and updates must occur without user interaction.
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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070-347 dumps Answer:
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26.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company’s environment includes Office 2007, Office 2010, Office 2013, Windows 7, and Windows 8.The company uses Office Telemetry. You need to collect Office version usage data for an upcoming migration to Office 365 ProPlus. What should you do?
A. Open documents by using Office 2007, Office 2010, or Office 2013 on client computers that run Windows 7.
B. Use the Get-MsolUsercmdlet with the ServiceStatus parameter.
C. Search network shares for Office documents and export the results to a .log file.
D. Search local computers for Office documents and export the results to a .csv file.
Answer: A
27.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has a single Active Directory Domain Services domain. As part of the Office 365 deployment, the company is preparing to deploy Office Telemetry. You need to disguise file names and document titles, while still collecting the telemetry data. What should you do?
A. In the Telemetry Dashboard, display only files that are used by multiple users.

B. On each client computer, edit the registry to prevent telemetry logging.
C. In the Telemetry Dashboard, obfuscate the document name, title, and path.
D. In the Telemetry Dashboard, apply a label named Private to employees.
070-347 pdf Answer: C
28.You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company recently subscribed to Office 365 ProPlus. When performing a test deployment, you receive the following error message: “Windows cannot find ‘C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office 15 \clientX64\integratedOffice.exe’.Make sure you typed the name correctly, and then try again.” You need to successfully complete the test deployment. Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Manually remove the registry subkeys associated with Office 2013, and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
B. completely uninstall existing versions of Office 2013 and then restart the Office 365 ProPlus installation.
C. Download the Office 365 ProPlus package to a file share, and then deploy Office 365 ProPlus by using Group Policy.
D. Automate the installation of Office 365 ProPlus applications by using Microsoft System Center
Configuration Manager.
Answer: A, D
29.Which storage method will make data most accessible?
A. Optical disk
B. Magnetic Disk
C. Jukebox
D. Tape
070-347 vce Correct Answer: B
30.Which task is an example of monitoring the utilization of a data center object?
A. Determining which device ports have the highest rates of errors
B. Viewing a list of file systems that are nearly full
C. Monitoring the status of processes on the host
D. Listing the number of disks in all storage arrays
Correct Answer: B
31.Which event is known as a head crash?
A. Two R/W heads have touched each other
B. A read head and a write head have touched each other
C. A R/W head has touched the disk data area
D. Two adjacent disk platters have touched each other
E. SAN
070-347 exam Correct Answer: C
32.What is a disadvantage of array based remote replication?
A. Uses host CPU resources
B. Cannot manage log shipping
C. Limited to specific databases
D. Limited to specific operating systems
Correct Answer: B
33.What is a valid member of a zone in a SAN?
A. The IP address of a host
B. A Domain ID
C. The serial number of a storage array
D. A HBA WWPN
070-347 dumps Correct Answer: D
34.What failure does RAID technology guard against?
A. Host bus Adapter failures
B. Host failures
C. Switch Failure
D. Disk Failure

Correct Answer: D
35.What is an advantage of using tape over disk as the backup destination device?
A. Faster restore time
B. Random access
C. RAID Protection
D. Portability
070-347 pdf Correct Answer: D
36.Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit?
1. Read data is sent to the host
2. Host sends read request to storage system
3. Cache is searched, and data is found
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 3, 1, 2
C. 1, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 3
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-165
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Q&As: 187

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Cisco 300-165 Dumps Exam Objectives:

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QUESTION: 75
When creating a parameter in Crystal Reports, when is the edit mask option available?
A. For a parameter that uses a dynamic prompt and requires a string value.
B. For any type of parameter that uses a static prompt.
C. For any type of parameter that uses a dynamic prompt.
D. For a parameter that uses a static prompt and requires a string value.
300-165 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 76
A report requires a pie chart that enables users to drill down on each slice to see the underlyingdetails. Which type of chart layout should you select on the Data tab of the Chart Expert in order to support the report’s requirements?
A. Group
B. OLAP
C. Cross-Tab
D. Detail
Answer: A
QUESTION: 77
Which operator can you use in Crystal syntax to comment out a piece of code?
A. Comment (‘)
B. Comment (//)
C. Comment (Rem)
D. Comment (#)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 78
Which formula can you use in a record selection to include all dates 30 days from the date the report is refreshed?
A. {Orders.Order Date} in Prev30Days
B. {Orders.Order Date} in NextMonth
C. {Orders.Order Date} in NextPeriod
D. {Orders.Order Date} in Next30Days
Answer: D
QUESTION: 79
How can you change a field’s position?
A. Select the Size and Position option in the Report menu.
B. Select the Location option in the Format menu.
C. Right-click the field and choose the Size and Position option.
D. Right-click the field and choose the Location option.
300-165 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 80
You need to create a formula that extracts the area code from each customer’s telephone number and displays the region based on the area code. Phone numbers are stored in a text field in the form 555-555-5555. Which formula will meet the stated requirements?
A. Local stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
B. Shared stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF aCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF aCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
C. stringVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
D. Global numberVar sCode := {Customer.Phone} [1 to 3]; IF sCode in [“604”, “250”] THEN “BC” ELSE IF sCode in [“415”, “714”,”310″,”661″] THEN “CA”;
Answer: A
QUESTION: 81
You create a new Crystal report and add an alert. After refreshing the report the alert is triggered. New data that meets the alert condition is added to the database, but the alert is not triggered again. Why is the alert NOT triggered?
A. The AlertMessage flag is set to “False.”
B. Once an alert is triggered, it is not evaluated again until the report is refreshed.
C. The alert condition must be refreshed after the alert is triggered.
D. Alerts are only triggered once per report.
300-165 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 82
Which three methods can you use to access the Global Formula Search? (Choose three.)
A. In the Preview Pane, right click on the field.
B. In the Formula Editor, right click on the field.
C. In the Preview Pane, select the field and press Alt-D.
D. In the Formula Editor, select the field and press Alt-D.
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 83
You are designing a Crystal report that contains a chart. Your chart must contain one “On change of” value and one “Show” value. Which three chart types can you use? (Choose three.)
A. Stock
B. Pie
C. Funnel
D. Radar
300-165 exam Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 84
Which three options can you use to export a Crystal report to a file type that maintains conditional formatting? (Choose three.)
A. Rich Text Format

B. MS Excel 97-2003
C. Acrobat Format (PDF)
D. XML
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 85
You are using a parameter to highlight sections in a Crystal Reports 2008 report. What will happen if you run the report with a different parameter value?
A. A database refresh will occur.
B. The report will produce an error.
C. The report refreshes from saved data.
D. A database logon prompt will appear.
300-165 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 86
You create a new Crystal report using a dynamic cascading parameter. You want to use all available values in the parameter prompt without selecting each value individually. How can you achieve the required result?
A. Create an “All values” item using a shared variable then reference this item in the record selection formula.
B. Create an “All values” item in a command object then reference this item in the record selection formula.
C. Create an “All values” item using the All command then reference this item in the record selection formula.
D. Create an “All values” item using an argument then reference this item in the record selection formula.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 87
You specify the “read-only” option on the Common tab of the Section Expert. Which action can a user perform on objects in that section when editing the report?
A. Move
B. Copy

C. Format
D. Delete
300-165 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 88
You create a new dynamic cascading parameter using an existing prompt group in a report. You receive an “Unable to save the parameter” error message trying to save the parameter. Why does this happen?
A. The Prompt Group Text is not conditionally formatted.
B. The Value names within the dynamic cascading parameter are duplicated elsewhere in the report.
C. The Description field is empty.
D. The prompt group already has parameters bound to each level.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 89
You design a Summary report with the Suppress option selected instead of the Hide option. Which two types of information will be displayed when you double-click a summary figure on the report?(Choose two.)
A. Detail Header information
B. Group Header information
C. Detail Footer information
D. Group Footer information
300-165 vce Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 19
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands. You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
70-534 exam Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 20
You are designing an Azure web application. All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which
two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a virtual machine named VM2. The users have the following responsibilities:

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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of least privilege. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer
area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION: 22
Which of the following interfaces found on an RFS4000 or RFS6000 Controller can be used to supply Power over Ethernet to directly attached APs?
A. Gigabyte Ethernet (GE)
B. Uplink (UP)
C. Management Ethernet (ME)
D. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
E. Express
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which of the following interfaces are recommended to connect an RFS4000 or RFS6000 to the local network?
A. Management Ethernet (ME)
B. Gigabyte Ethernet (GE)
C. Uplink (UP)
D. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
E. Express
70-534 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 24
In which of the following modes does an RFS controller using WiNG 5 operate (select TWO)?
A. Hub mode
B. Bridge mode
C. Switch mode
D. Router mode
E. Repeater mode
F. Controller mode
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 25
You are deploying a WiNG 5 system and need to visualize Layer 1 activity only. Which of the following tools would allow you to do this?
A. Protocol Analyzer
B. Spectrum Analyzer
C. WLAN Discovery tool
D. Predictive Site Survey tool
E. Manual Site Survey tool
70-534 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
You are monitoring a wireless client on a WLAN and are using a 2.4GHz radio to capture a wireless trace. When using the sniffer-redirect option on Motorola AP without off-channel scanning, how many simultaneous 20Mhz channels can be redirected by the AP?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 11
Answer: A
QUESTION: 27
Which of the following terms are used to describe Motorola AP-650s (select TWO)?
A. FatAP
B. DependentAP
C. Non-Site survivable AP
D. Site Survivable AP
E. Independent AP
70-534 vce Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 28
When mounting an antenna on a metal wall, what special considerations do you have to take into account regarding RF propagation (select TWO)?

A. Length of antenna cable
B. The type of antenna to be used
C. Type of screws to be used
D. The distance the antenna is from the wall
E. Mounting height of the antenna
Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following is the single biggest security vulnerability evident in the image below?
A. Use of no security on Visitor VLAN
B. Use of Pre-Shared Key on several WLANs
C. Use of Wired Equivalent Privacy on WLAN1g
D. Use of Temporal Key Integrity Protocol on WLAN1a
E. Use of Netgear and Motorola APs on the same RF bands
F. Use of Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol on several WLANs
70-534 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
You have configured Radio 2 (5 GHz) of an AP-650 to use 802.11n 20/40 MHz channels. Under the WLAN configuration settings you have selected WPA/WPA2- TKIP using a PSK. To test the connection you associate an 802.lln client laptop device but notice that the connection speed between the two 802.11n devices is limited to 54 Mbps. See Exhibit: B.3.2.06 at the bottom. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this condition?

A. PSK is limited to 54 Mbps.
B. 802.11 Protection Mechanisms are in effect.
C. WPA/WPA2-TKIP encryption is limited to 54 Mbps.
D. Channels in the 5 GHz band are limited to 802.11a rates of 54 Mbps.
E. More wireless client devices are using 802.11a than are using 802.lln tipping the
AP into legacy compatibility mode.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 31
Wi-Fi radios can generally operate in the presence of transmissions from neighboring radios, as long as the neighboring signal strengths are at -85 dBm or lower. In Exhibit 3.3.10 shown below, ESSIDs Tin, Silver, Chrome, and Visitors are virtual APs assigned to a single Motorola AP-650 radio. Which of the neighboring ESSIDs are most likely to cause co-channel interference to this AP?

A. Moto
B. 3AN1
C. WLAN1g
D. beaglemama
E. Hidden SSID (MAC = 00:1C:F0:FA:65:94)
70-534 dumps Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 32
You are trouble shooting a WiNG 5 deployment for a large customer that was configured with 3 separate WLANS on the RFS controller. Each of the WLANs were designated for three different departments (Finance, Human Resources, and Warehouse users). The customer is complaining that users from certain department are incorrectly attaining access to resources from other departments. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason this is happening?
A. No VLAN segmentation on the wired network
B. The layer 3 VLAN option has not been configured properly
C. WLAN segmentation has not been enabled on your RFS controller
D. VPN tunnel has not been established between the RFS controller and the core
switch
Answer: A

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