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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 155

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Latest Pass4itsure 70-532 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#8-23

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the Work action on the TeacherController object.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

 70-532 dumps

70-532 exam Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

Testlet 1
Topic 2, Contoso, Ltd
Background
Contoso, Ltd. is developing a patient monitoring solution for a hospital. The solution consists of
an Azure website and a set of mobile applications that health care providers use to monitor
patients remotely.
Monitoring devices that run the embedded version of Windows will be attached to patients. The
devices will collect information from patients and will transmit real-time continuous data to a
service that runs on Azure. The service collects and distributes data. The data that the service
provides must be accessible by the website and by the mobile applications.
Business Requirements
Patients
All patient data must be stored securely on Azure. Data security must meet or exceed Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) standards in the United States and
must meet or exceed ISO/ICE 27002 data security standards in the rest of the world.
70-532 dumps Contractors
Third-party contractors will develop the mobile applications. All contractors must develop the
applications by using virtual machines (VMs) that are hosted on Azure. Only authorized
contractors and authorized IP addresses are permitted to access the VMs. The contractors can use
Near Field Communication (NFC) tags to launch Remote Desktop (RD) connections to the VMs
from NFC-enabled devices. For testing purposes, contractors must be able to run multiple
instances of mobile applications within the VMs.
Data Collection and Distribution Service
The service must monitor the patient data and send out alerts to health care providers when
specific conditions are detected. The service must send the alerts to mobile applications and to
the website in real time so that doctors, nurses, and caregivers can attend to the patient. Partner
organizations and diagnostic laboratories must be able to securely access the data and the website
from remote locations.
Current Issues
A partner that is testing a prototype of the website reports that after signing in to the website, the
partner is redirected to the settings page instead of to the home page.
The data from the patient devices is slow to appear on the website and does not always appear.
All patient devices online have active connections to the data collection service.
Technical Requirements
70-532 pdf Contractors
All contractors will use virtual machines that are initially configured as size A3. Contractors
must sign in to the assigned VM by using IP addresses from a list of preapproved addresses.
Data Collection and Distribution Service
The service runs Node.js in a worker role.
The service must use at least 2048-bit encryption and must use port 8888.
All patient information must be encrypted and stored by using a NoSQL data
store.
Data must be stored and retrieved securely by using RESTful endpoints.
Data must NOT be stored within a virtual machine.
All deployed services must send an alert email to [email protected] when any of the
following conditions is met:
The CPU Percentage metric is at or above 85 percent for at least 10 minutes.
The Network In metric is at or above 2 KB for at least 10 minutes.
The Network Out metric is at or above 2 KB for at least 10 minutes.
The Disk Write metric is at or above 1 KB/sec for at least 30 minutes.
The Disk Read metric is at or above 1 KB/sec for at least 30 minutes.
70-532 vce Website and Mobile Devices
The website must be secure and must be accessible only within the hospital’s physical grounds.
All mobile applications and websites must be responsive. All websites must produce error logs
that can be viewed remotely.
Virtual Machines
All Azure instances must be deployed and tested on staging instances before they
are deployed to production instances.
All deployed instances must scale up to the next available CPU instance at a CPU
usage threshold of 90 percent and scale down when the usage is below 10 percent.
Application Structure
Relevant portions of the application files are shown in the following code segments. Line
numbers in the code segments are included for reference only and include a two-character prefix
that denotes the specific file to which they belong.

70-532 dumps

QUESTION 1
The website does not receive alerts quickly enough.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Enable automatic scaling for the website.
B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role.
C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance.
D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role.
E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role.
70-532 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You create a VM named cVM_005 for a newly hired contractor.
The contractor reports that the VM runs out of memory when the contractor attempts to test the mobile applications.
You need to double the memory that is available for the VM.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you use?

70-532 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C

D. Option D
70-532 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts.
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive.
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400″ />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You need to implement tracing for the website after the website is deployed.
Which code segment should you insert at line CF13?

70-532 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-532 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You need to configure a VM for a new contractor.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

70-532 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 7
You run the following Windows PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.
70-532 dumps

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

70-532 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the worker role to support the real-time continuous data-collection
service.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options
in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-532 dumps

70-532 vce Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 9
You configure alerts in Azure. The metrics shown in the following exhibit represent the average
values for each five-minute period.

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Aug 09, 2017
Q&As: 49

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1.Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
70-742 exam Answer: C
2.Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as “projects” and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000.The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status.
How would you define this situation?
A. Because each individual order is a “temporary endeavor,” each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C
3.A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
70-742 dumps Answer: C
4.All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A
5.A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.

70-742 pdf Answer: C
6.While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track.
What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A
7.You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country.
Which of the following should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
70-742 vce Answer: A
8.An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do.
What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C
9.What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller’s estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
70-742 exam Answer: A
10.You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project.

It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C
11.If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
70-742 dumps Answer: C
12.The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip.
What is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A
13.A project manager has made a change to the project.
What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
70-742 pdf Answer: B
14.A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B
15.A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change.
What is the MOST appropriate advice for the situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project

planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
70-742 vce Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-734
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 46

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QUESTION NO: 1
Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest
impact on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. Theusers status in the organisation
70-734 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring
aprofessional approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your
team has confided in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would
youexplain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure
usersatisfaction with services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the
support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to
meetdelivery of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards ofbehaviour
70-734 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First
Contact Resolution performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels

70-734 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managingusers expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of
yourprincipal responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers tousers questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
70-734 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the ITorganisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for
assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to theorganisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
70-734 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What
is the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistentbehaviour
B. Company policiesemphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet theirmanagers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
70-734 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are
procedures and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for
consistent procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not becriticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
70-734 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently

B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
70-734 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will notcriticise my behaviour
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
70-734 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 275

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QUESTION 10
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective
when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied
to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to
the destination
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

210-260

If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how
will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260

Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and
sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall
configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn
mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn
mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from
accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local
URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local
URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local
URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter
router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter
router.
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to
enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS

D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations?
(Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 23
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which syslog severity level is level number 7?
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: D

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300-135

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Jun 10, 2017
Q&As: 82
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html

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300-135

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QUESTION 2
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP
doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.

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The following debug messages are noticed for HSRP group 2. But still neither R1 nor R2 has identified one of them as standby router. Identify the reason causing
the issue.
Note: only show commands can be used to troubleshoot the ticket.
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:39.234: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:40.034: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:40.364: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:41.969: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:42.719: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:42.918: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:44.869: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:45.485: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:45.718: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:47.439: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:48.252: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:48.322: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.389: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.735: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.921: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.089: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.338: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active pri130vlP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.633: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
A. HSRP group priority misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
D. This is not an HSRP issue: this is DHCP issue.
E. The ACL applied to interface is blocking HSRP hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On R1 we see that access list 102 has been applied to the Ethernet 1/0 interface:

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This access list is blocking all traffic to the 224.0.0.102 IP address, which is the multicast address used by HSRP.

 


QUESTION 3
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP
doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems

300-135300-135

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300-135

Examine the configuration on R4. The routing table shows no entries for 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.20.0/24. Identify which of the following is the issue preventing
route entries being installed on R4 routing table?
A. HSRP issue between R4 and R2
B. This is an OSPF issue between R4 and R2
C. This is a DHCP issue between R4 and R2
D. The distribute-list configured on R4 is blocking route entries
E. The ACL configured on R4 is blocking inbound traffic on the interface connected to R2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 300-135
Explanation:
If we look at the configuration on R4 we see that there is a distribute list applied to OSPF, which blocks the 172.16.20.0/24 and 172.16.10.0/24 networks.


QUESTION 4
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are
not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing
that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip
EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip
EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

 


QUESTION 5
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to
use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure
the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

 


QUESTION 6
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

 


QUESTION 7
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational
messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.

C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you
exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Jun 02, 2017
Q&As: 503
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Install SQL Server and related services
Test connectivity; enable and disable features; install SQL Server database engine and SSIS (not SSRS and SSAS); configure an OS disk
Implement a migration strategy
Restore vs detach/attach; migrate security; migrate from a previous version; migrate to new hardware; migrate systems and data from other sources
Configure additional SQL Server components
Set up and configure all SQL Server components (Engine, AS, RS and SharePoint integration) in a complex and highly secure environment; configure full-text indexing; SSIS security; filestream; filetable
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Create, maintain, and monitor jobs; administer jobs and alerts; automate (setup, maintenance, monitoring) across multiple databases and multiple instances; send to 070-410 pdf “Manage SQL Server Agent jobs”

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Latest Pass4itsure 070-410 PDF Exam Questions and Answers Updated (June 2017)#10-20

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server
server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

070-410

You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

070-410

In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to join Server1 to the
contoso.com domain.
What should you use?
A. The New-ADComputer cmdlet
B. The djoin.exe command
C. The dsadd.exe command
D. The Add-Computer cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware
failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What
should you do?

070-410

A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the
forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.

What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is
named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by
using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU)
named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012
R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

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