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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 10
You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism
B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
70-417 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool –
DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager). When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the
command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:…

References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 2: Deploying Servers, p. 44
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1
and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as shown in following table.

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When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2.
You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain.
What should you identify?
A. The placement of the infrastructure master
B. The placement of the global catalog server
C. The placement of the domain naming master

D. The placement of the PDC emulator
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The exhibit shows that Site2 does not have a PDC emulator. This is important because of the close
interaction between the RID operations master role and the PDC emulator role The PDC emulator
processes password changes from earlier-version clients and other domain controllers on a best-effort
basis; handles password authentication requests involving passwords that have recently changed and not
yet been replicated throughout the domain; and, by default, synchronizes time. If this domain controller
cannot connect to the PDC emulator, this domain controller cannot process authentication requests, it may
not be able to synchronize time, and password updates cannot be replicated to it.
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. The forest contains five
domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

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You need to configure DC5 as a global catalog server.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Administrative Center
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Sites and Services
D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
70-417 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Active Directory Sites and Services can be used to Add or remove the global catalog read-only directory
partitions from a domain controller in the site. Confirm that all read-only directory partitions have been
replicated to the new global catalog server. As well as verify that the global catalog server is being
advertised in Domain Name System (DNS).
References:

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a single domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains four domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

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All domain controllers are DNS servers.
You plan to deploy a new domain controller named DC5 in the contoso.com domain.
You need to identify which domain controller must be online to ensure that DC5 can be promoted
successfully to a domain controller.
Which domain controller should you identify?
A. DC1
B. DC2
C. DC3
D. DC4
70-417 vce 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to add a Domain Controller to corp.contoso.com, you need PDC and RID of that domain, not of the
root domain. The Domain Naming Master is needed to add, remove and rename domains in the forest, i.e.
not for individual Domain Controllers.
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All domain controllers currently run
Windows Server 2008 R2.
You plan to install a new domain controller named DC4 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
The new domain controller will have the following configurations:
Schema master
Global catalog server
DNS Server server role
Active Directory Certificate Services server role
You need to identify which configurations cannot be fulfilled by using the Active Directory Domain Services
Configuration Wizard.
Which two configurations should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Enable the global catalog server.
B. Transfer the schema master.
C. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services role.
D. Install the DNS Server role.
70-417 exam 
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
AD Installation Wizard will automatically install DNS and allows for the option to set it as a global catalog
server. ADCS and schema must be done separately.
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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 189

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Question No : 1 Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A.a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B.a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C.a route list with no route groups configured
D.a route list with one or more route groups configured
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Answer: A,D
Reference:

Question No : 2 What are two benefits of using the DiffServ QoS model? (Choose two)
A. It offers an absolute guarantee of service quality.
B. It is highly scalable.
C. RTCP is scalable.
D. It provides many different levels of quality.
E. RSVP is not scalable.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 3  If the 300-070 dumps route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which
pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Answer: B

Question No : 4  In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN.
To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented. How should CAC be implemented?
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a
combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco
Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Answer: E

Question No : 5  Refer to the exhibit.

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An engineer is trying to determine the status of the ISDN D Channel on a new PRI circuit,
types in the show isdn status command, and sees this output. Which two pieces of
information can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)
A.The provider is using the 5ESS protocol.
B.There are four channels.
C.The connection to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been established.
D.The D channel is working correctly.
E.No active calls are established.
300-070 pdf 
Answer: D,E

Question No : 6. Change the default user name for this application to Lee Smith.
A. Tools -> options -> General tab -> in the name box delete msingh -> type Lee Smith
Answer: A
Question No :7. Switch to Slide Sorter View.

A. View -> select slide sorter
300-070 vce Answer: A
Question No :8. Create a Title Slide, with placeholders for both a title and a sub-title.

A. Insert -> new slide -> select the title slide
Answer: A
Question No :9. This travel company uses an approved range of corporate templates.
Apply the design template Sunny Days to this presentation.

A. Format -> apply design template -> select Sunny Days -> Apply
300-070 exam Answer: A
Question No :10. If Maria were deleted from this organisation chart, which one of the following statements would be
True?

A. Miguel and Lee would become sub-ordinates of Paul.
B. Miguel and Lee would report directly to Alexandra
C. Miguel and Lee would become co-workers of Naim and Michelle.
D. You would be prompted to give Miguel and Lee a new manager.

Answer: B
Question No : 11.Open the presentation named Training.ppt, which is in the My Documents folder.

Answer: Click on open tool ->click on my documents -> select Training.ppt ->open
Question No : 12.Create a new blank presentation.

Answer: Click on the new tool from the standard toolbar
Question No : 13.Save the Company Strategy presentation as an Outline/RTF file. You don’t need to change the file
location.

Answer: File -> save as -> use the drop down list in the save as type box and select outline/RTF-> save
Question No : 14.Access the Slide Master, and remove the graphic of the skier.
Answer: View -> master -> slide master -> select the graphic -> press delete from the keyboard
Question No :15.Access the Header and Footer dialog box and add slide numbers to all slides except for the title slide
of this presentation.

Answer: View -> header and footer -> check the slide number -> check don’t show on title slide -> apply
to all

QUESTION NO: 16
_________Help define the role and responsibilities of auditors to internal and external entities.
Where as _______establish the basic principles and guidance to assist auditors in the
performance of their duties?
A. Technical standards, Standards
B. Standards, Defense standards
C. Audit standards, Standards
D. Standards, Open standards
300-070 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Audit standards were developed and are followed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To provide uniform guidance to auditors and to establish a basis for conducting internal and
external reviews of quality audits.
B. To build credibility and confidence in the auditing profession.
C. To inform customers (the public, public officials, management, stockholders, etc.) about the role
ofauditing.
D. Audit staff qualifications and Quality control
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
All of the following groups benefit from the existence of audit standards in a variety of ways
EXCEPT:
A. Elected officials and the public receive increased assurance that public funds are being
effectively used and monitored
B. Government organization
C. Management receives increased assurance that fraud or other organizational deficiencies will
be detected and corrected.
D. External parties and reviewers are provided with usable measurement guidelines.
300-070 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Governmental auditing is distinctive and encompasses different requirements from auditing
commercial or not-for-profit enterprises. The standards that apply specifically to government audits
are all of the following EXCEPT:
A. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB).
B. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
C. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
D. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION 1
Which activity belongs to the process End user support?
A. dealing with calls about errors in the functionality
B. monitoring the usage of the information systems
C. adding new end users to a table
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is not an activity of Contract management?
A. agreeing on how the information manager is to communicate with the IT director
B. changing the time of delivery of a change
C. monitoring whether the supplied IT-services correspond to the agreed services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
The cluster Use management provides information about the reliability of the business data. For which
process is this input?
A. Business data management
B. Demand management
C. Contract management
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which process produces an end user training for a new release of an application?
A. Transition
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What do frameworks like BiSL contribute to the implementation of effective business information
management?
A. structured activities of business information management
B. much improved quality of the IT-services
C. a uniformly implemented business information management for each organization
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which process deals with defining interfaces in the area of information provisioning between various
organizations?
A. Information coordination
B. Information lifecycle management
C. Information portfolio management
D. Strategic information partner management

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The process cluster Use management signals disruptions to the information provisioning, which are
experienced in the business process. Which process cluster will be the first to act on these signals?
A. Functionality management cluster
B. Information strategy cluster
C. Connecting processes (operational)
70-774 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which role does business information management play regarding the realization of the information
provisioning?
A. the role of vendor of IT-services
B. the role of purchaser of IT-services
C. the role of supplier of IT-services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Two reports that have been produced in the nightly batch processing have been damaged during printing.
This has been noticed by Operational supplier management. In which process will the end users be
informed that the reports have been damaged?
A. Business data management
B. End user support
C. Operational supplier management
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which activities are not in a transition plan?
A. the activities that are required for a successful preparation of the implementation
B. the generic activities that have to be performed at all locations where the system is implemented
C. the specific activities that have to be performed at a specific location during transition
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What is a key message of BiSL?
A. After outsourcing of IT-activities, professional business information management becomes less
important.
B. The importance of having good business information management increases in proportion to the
importance of the information provisioning for the organization.
C. Integration and alignment of the operational IT-management processes with the policy is a

consequence of an effective and efficient information provisioning.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which process determines which information provisioning is required, including the priorities?
A. Demand management
B. End user support
C. Information lifecycle management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What is a result of the process Specify information requirement?
A. a functional design
B. a list of functional and non-functional demands
C. an approved test strategy
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which responsibility belongs to the process Demand management?
A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which process determines whether an implementation plan is complete and correct?
A. Review and testing
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
70-774 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What is a result of the process cluster Functionality management?
A. a changed information provisioning, ready for implementation
B. a changed, tested and approved information provisioning that is being used
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What is an objective of the process Change management?
A. making the correct decisions on the implementation of changes to the information provisioning
B. detailed monitoring of the progress of the changes
C. managing the implementation of the changes
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 188

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9.You are creating a set of load-balanced virtual machines (VMs) that are hosted on Azure.
You run the following Windows PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.

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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
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70-532 exam Correct Answer:
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8.You are developing a messaging solution for a financial services company named Adatum. The solution
must integrate an application named Enrollment and an application named Activation.
The Enrollment application is used to enroll new customers. The Activation application is used to activate
accounts for new customers.
You need to ensure that each message that the Enrollment application sends is stored in a queue for ten
minutes before the Activation application uses the message.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the
answer area.
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9.You have a cloud service that runs an external process that is named MyStartupTask.cmd. The cloud
service runs this external process when the web role starts. The external process writes information to the
Windows registry. You set the value of an environment variable named MyID to the deployment ID for the
current web role instance. The external process must complete writing the information to the Windows registry before the web role
starts to accept web traffic.You need to configure the cloud service. How should you complete the relevant markup? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the 70-532 dumps answer area.
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10.You deploy a new version of a cloud-service application to a staging slot. The application consists of one
web role. You prepare to swap the new version of the application into the production slot. Your Azure
account has access to multiple Azure subscriptions. You load the Azure PowerShell cmdlets into the
Windows PowerShell command shell. The command shell is NOT configured for certificate-based
authentication.
You must use the Windows PowerShell command window to configure the application.
You need to create five instances of the web role.
How should you configure the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate
option or options in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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11.You have been hired at a large company to manage network security. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a meeting and are
discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your assistants asks what the
function of Confidentiality in network security is. Which of the following best describes

Confidentiality?
A. Confidentiality verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
B. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected in order to maintain appropriate levels of
privacy and confidentiality.
Network security must provide a secure channel for the transmission of data and email that does not allow
eavesdropping by
unauthorized users. Data confidentiality ensures the privacy of data on the network system.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes Confidentiality for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Confidentiality is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Data must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or
corruption that is accidental in nature.
70-532 pdf Answer: B
12.You have been hired at a large company to manage the network security issues. Prior to your
arrival, there was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your
assistants asks what the function of Authentication in network security is. Which of the following
best describes Authentication?
A. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Authentication.
Authentication ensures the privacy of
data on the network system.
B. Authentication is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Upon receiving the email or data communication, authentication must be verified to ensure that the
message has not been altered,
modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation

after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes authentication for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Authentication verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
Answer: E
13.During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of an infeasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
C. the cost to protect the asset is infeasible to determine
D. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
70-532 vce Answer: A
14.During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of feasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of protect the asset
C. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset.
D. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset.
Answer: E
15.Signatures are generally divided into what three categories?
A. Corruptions
B. Exploits
C. Accesses
D. DoS attacks
E. Reconnaissance
70-532 exam Answer: BDE
16.You were recently hired as the security administrator of a small business. You are
reviewing the current state of security in the network and find that the current logging
system must be immediately modified. As the system is currently configured, auditing

has no practical value. Which of the following are the reasons that the current auditing
has little value?
A. The logs go unchecked.
B. The logs are automatically deleted after three months. C.
The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 500Kb. D.
The only auditing is successful file access events.
E. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 5000Kb.
Answer: AD
17.You are considering adding layers to your existing authentication system. Reading through some of
the vendor literature on logon solutions, it frequently mentions two and three factor authentication.
Your assistant asks you to describe the difference between the two. Select the options that correctly
describe two-factor and three-factor authentication:
A. Two-factor authentication is the process providing something you have along with something you
know.
B. Two-factor authentication is the process of providing two forms of authentication, such as a username
and a password.
C. Two-factor authentication is the process of authenticating twice during the login sequence to verify user
identity.
D. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing something you have along with something you
know and something you are.
E. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing three forms of authentication, such as
username,
password, and sitting at
the physical machine to login.
F. Three-factor authentication is the process of authenticating three times during the login sequence to
verify user identity.
70-532 dumps Answer: AD
18.You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have decided to
implement a PPTP VPN solution, which of these ports would you need to allow through the firewall
to allow these VPN sessions into your network?
A. 1723
B. 2317
C. 1273
D. 1372
E. 7132
Answer: A
19.You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have
decided to implement a VPN solution that will use L2TP. Which port or ports would you

need to allow through the firewall to allow the L2TP traffic to reach the VPN server
inside your network from a remote client?
A. TCP 1723
B. UDP 47
C. UDP 1701
D. TCP 443
E. UDP 500
70-532 pdf Answer: C
20.You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the
Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told
to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which
of the following ports will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP1601
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As: 378

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
200-355 dumps

A customer has enabled the primary 200-355 exam DNS server to return the correct controller IP address in response to
a CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain request coming from new access points associating to
the wireless network. The access points seem to still be receiving the wrong IP address and cannot
associate to the primary controller. Why are the access points receiving the wrong IP information?
A. The DHCP option 43 has an incorrect controller IP address configured.
B. The DNS server must be configured to respond to CISCO-LWAPP- CONTROLLER.localdomain
request.
C. The controller and wireless action point need to be Layer 2 adjacent.
D. The controller must be configured for DHCP option 15 request.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A customer has ordered a Cisco 5760 Wireless Controller. What speed and quantity of ports are needed
for full-speed operation?
A. 6 x 1 Gb
B. 6 x 10 Gb
C. 2 x 10 Gb
D. 2 x 1 Gb
E. 8 x 1 Gb
F. 8 x 10 Gb

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless 200-355 dumps connection to an enterprise wireless network?
(Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 4
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows
frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in
RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was
performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
200-355 pdf 
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5. THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION (“THE EXAM”) AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE “EXAM MATERIALS”) IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE “START” BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE “EXIT” BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement (“Agreement”) between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation’s intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining

to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click ‘Yes, I agree.’, and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click ‘No, I do not agree.’, and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending
QUESTION 6. What controls access from one network segment to another?
A. hub
B. MTA
C. sensor
D. firewall
200-355 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 7. Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself overa computer
network and usually performs malicious actions?
A. virus
B. zero-day exploit
C. spam D.
worm
Answer: D
QUESTION 8. Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
200-355 exam Answer: BEFHI

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Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 112

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1. According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision

70-764 exam Answer: A
2. In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E
3. Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
70-764 dumps 
Answer: D
4. If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the
Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?
A. TOGAF Extension

B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: C
5. Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To show the evolution of deliverables
D. To support change management
70-764 pdf 
Answer: B
6.Which of the following describe the functions of a scheduling algorithm? (Choose 4)
A. Reduce the total amount of computation necessary to complete a job.
B. Allow short Jobs to complete even when large, long jobs (consuming a lot of resources) arerunning.
C. Support the implementation of service-level agreements for multiple cluster users.
D. Allow multiple users to share clustersina predictable, policy-guided manner.
E. Run jobs at periodic times of the day.
F. Reduce job latencies in an environment withmultiple jobs of different sizes.
Answer: A,D,E,F
7.You are running a Hadoop cluster with all monitoring facilities properly configured. Which scenario will
go undetected.?
A. Map or reduce tasks that are stuck in an infinite loop.
B. HDFS is almost full.
C. The NameNode goes down.
D. A DataNode is disconnectedfrom the cluster.
E. MapReduce jobs that are causing excessive memory swaps.
70-764 vce 
Answer: C
8.Which of the following scenarios makes HDFS unavailable?
A. JobTracker failure
B. TaskTracker failure
C. DataNode failure
D. NameNode failure
E. Secondary NameNode failure
Answer: A
9.The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True

B.False
70-764 exam Answer: A
10.Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose
four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module B.
Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric. C.
There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire
chassis
Answer: A,B,C,E
11.What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups
supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups B.
13 groups C.
24 groups D.
64 groups E.
128 groups
70-764 dumps Answer: D
14.Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800?
(Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority
applications
Answer: A,B,D
15.Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on
the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)

A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
70-764 pdf Answer: A,B
16.Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port
1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode E.
1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only F.
1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Answer: B,D,E
17.Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
70-764 exam Answer: B,C
18.What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable
feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the
network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
manages Layer 2 switched links
Answer: D
19.Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise
networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches

C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric
design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of
network attacks
70-764 dumps Answer: C,D,E
20.Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network?
(Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation
Answer: A,B,E
21.Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com
products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP
wiring
70-764 pdf Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)
Updated: Aug 24, 2017
Q&As: 274

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1. On which is RES PowerFuse software installed in a workstation deployment scenario?
1:All workstations
2:Domain controllers
3:All terminal servers
4: File and database servers
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
210-065 exam Answer: A
2. A company consists of 1 site, 3000 concurrent users, 80 terminal servers, 300 workstations with RES
Subscriber installed.
What is the BEST RES PowerFuse deployment scenario for this company?
A. Clustered FoxPro database
B. Clustered MSSQL database
C. Clustered fileshare and a clustered FoxPro database
D. Clustered fileshare and a clustered MSSQL database
Answer: D
3. On which is RES PowerFuse software installed in a Hybrid Environment deployment scenario?
1:All workstations
2:Domain controllers
3:All terminal servers
4:File and database servers
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
210-065 dumps Answer: A

4. Which statement is true?
A laptop uses the
1:local database when it is online.
2:local database when it is offline.
3:central database when it has an online connection.
4:central database when it has an offline connection.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
5. What database scenario is correct for setting up a new RES PowerFuse environment which consists of
workstations, laptops and terminal servers?
A. One database for laptops, workstations and terminal servers
B. One database for laptops and one for workstations and terminal servers
C. One database for terminal servers and one for workstations and laptops
D. One database for laptops, one for workstations, and one for terminal servers
210-065 pdf Answer: C
6. What should be verified first after installing RES PowerFuse?
A. Whether the RES Service is installed.
B. Whether Active Directory is correctly enumerated. C.
The permissions on the RES PowerFuse file share.
D. Whether the RES PowerFuse database has been created.
Answer: C
7. Which port does the RES Service use?
A. 1942 TCP

B. 1942 UDP
C. 3163 TCP
D. 3163 UDP
210-065 vce Answer: A
8. Why is it NOT advisable to use a local system account for the RES Service?
A. Because it lacks “write” permissions on the fileshare
B. Because it does not have the “log on as a service” privilege
C. Because it unnecessarily increases local system overhead
D. Because it has insufficient rights to connect to a remote SQL database
Answer: A
9. Supported RES PowerFuse setup types include
A. Real Access Manager only.
B. RES Subscriber Agent only.
C. RES PowerFuse Agent only.
D. Real Enterprise Manager only.
210-065 exam Answer: D
10. To enable support for Group Nesting, support for which of the following needs to be enabled first?
A. Multiple Domains
B. Domain Local Groups
C. Novell Directory Services
D. Microsoft Active Directory Services
Answer: D
11. When a workstation running RES PowerFuse starts a session on a terminal server also running RES
PowerFuse, a license is required
A. for both the workstation and the terminal server session.
B. on the workstation, but not for the terminal server session.

C. on the workstation, but a terminal server license is only needed for a published desktop.
D. on the workstation, but a terminal server license is only needed for a published application.
210-065 dumps Answer: B
12. What restrictions apply when RES PowerFuse is running in trial mode?
A. A maximum of one domain and a trial mode message
B. A maximum of five concurrent users and a trial mode message
C. A maximum of one application per menu and a maximum of one domain
D. A maximum of one application per menu and a maximum of five concurrent users
Answer: B
13. What licenses are needed for a laptop environment?
A. A laptop site license and laptop licenses
B. A laptop site license and workstation licenses
C. A workstation site license and laptop licenses
D. A workstation site license and workstation licenses
210-065 pdf Answer: C
14. Given the following,
50 users working on a RES PowerFuse laptop environment that are also connecting to the RES
PowerFuse Terminal Server environment
150 users working concurrently on a RES PowerFuse Terminal Server environment connecting with Thin
Clients
300 users working on a RES PowerFuse workstation environment that are also connecting to the RES
PowerFuse Terminal Server environment
What RES PowerFuse licenses are required in this environment?
A. A Terminal Site license with a 450 user license pack and a workstation site license
B. A Terminal Site license with a 150 user license pack and a workstation site license with a 350 user pack
C. A Terminal Site license with a 150 user license pack and a workstation site license with a 300 user pack
and 50 laptop licenses

D. A Terminal Site license with a 150 user license pack and a workstation site license with a 300 user pack
and a laptop site license with a 50 laptop license pack
Answer: C
15. What happens when the RES PowerFuse Shell is being used and a user double-clicks the system
tray clock?
A. RES PowerFuse calendar is displayed
B. Default Microsoft Outlook calendar is displayed
C. RES PowerFuse Task Scheduler is displayed
D. Windows Date and Time properties are displayed
210-065 vce Answer: A
16. The default pwruser.ini file is located in the
A. User profile.
B. Model directory.
C. User home directory.
D. %programfiles%\RES PowerFuse
Answer: B
17. How can an administrator prevent a user from removing specific application shortcuts from
QuickLaunch?
A. By enforcing the “Lock the Taskbar” policy for that user
B. By setting the shortcut mandatory when editing the application
C. By setting “pwruser.ini” to read-only with home drive maintenance
D. By limiting PowerPanel to “change password and change desktop colors”
210-065 exam Answer: B
18. Which is a feature found ONLY in PowerPrint Advanced?
A. Clearing the print spooler
B. Managing active print jobs

C. Connecting to a non-default printer
D. Setting a default printer per location
Answer: D
19. What does PowerHelp enable a user to do?
A. Request access to an application
B. Configure application specific settings
C. Report software problems to the IT staff
D. View access information about an application
210-065 dumps Answer: D
20. With PowerHelp, the access information list may differ from the support information list, because
Application Managers may
A. have an insufficient Security Role.
B. have incompatible accessible PowerZones.
C. belong to another Group to which they are limited.
D. belong to another Organizational Unit to which they are limited.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 155

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Latest Pass4itsure 70-532 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#8-23

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the Work action on the TeacherController object.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

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70-532 exam Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

Testlet 1
Topic 2, Contoso, Ltd
Background
Contoso, Ltd. is developing a patient monitoring solution for a hospital. The solution consists of
an Azure website and a set of mobile applications that health care providers use to monitor
patients remotely.
Monitoring devices that run the embedded version of Windows will be attached to patients. The
devices will collect information from patients and will transmit real-time continuous data to a
service that runs on Azure. The service collects and distributes data. The data that the service
provides must be accessible by the website and by the mobile applications.
Business Requirements
Patients
All patient data must be stored securely on Azure. Data security must meet or exceed Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) standards in the United States and
must meet or exceed ISO/ICE 27002 data security standards in the rest of the world.
70-532 dumps Contractors
Third-party contractors will develop the mobile applications. All contractors must develop the
applications by using virtual machines (VMs) that are hosted on Azure. Only authorized
contractors and authorized IP addresses are permitted to access the VMs. The contractors can use
Near Field Communication (NFC) tags to launch Remote Desktop (RD) connections to the VMs
from NFC-enabled devices. For testing purposes, contractors must be able to run multiple
instances of mobile applications within the VMs.
Data Collection and Distribution Service
The service must monitor the patient data and send out alerts to health care providers when
specific conditions are detected. The service must send the alerts to mobile applications and to
the website in real time so that doctors, nurses, and caregivers can attend to the patient. Partner
organizations and diagnostic laboratories must be able to securely access the data and the website
from remote locations.
Current Issues
A partner that is testing a prototype of the website reports that after signing in to the website, the
partner is redirected to the settings page instead of to the home page.
The data from the patient devices is slow to appear on the website and does not always appear.
All patient devices online have active connections to the data collection service.
Technical Requirements
70-532 pdf Contractors
All contractors will use virtual machines that are initially configured as size A3. Contractors
must sign in to the assigned VM by using IP addresses from a list of preapproved addresses.
Data Collection and Distribution Service
The service runs Node.js in a worker role.
The service must use at least 2048-bit encryption and must use port 8888.
All patient information must be encrypted and stored by using a NoSQL data
store.
Data must be stored and retrieved securely by using RESTful endpoints.
Data must NOT be stored within a virtual machine.
All deployed services must send an alert email to [email protected] when any of the
following conditions is met:
The CPU Percentage metric is at or above 85 percent for at least 10 minutes.
The Network In metric is at or above 2 KB for at least 10 minutes.
The Network Out metric is at or above 2 KB for at least 10 minutes.
The Disk Write metric is at or above 1 KB/sec for at least 30 minutes.
The Disk Read metric is at or above 1 KB/sec for at least 30 minutes.
70-532 vce Website and Mobile Devices
The website must be secure and must be accessible only within the hospital’s physical grounds.
All mobile applications and websites must be responsive. All websites must produce error logs
that can be viewed remotely.
Virtual Machines
All Azure instances must be deployed and tested on staging instances before they
are deployed to production instances.
All deployed instances must scale up to the next available CPU instance at a CPU
usage threshold of 90 percent and scale down when the usage is below 10 percent.
Application Structure
Relevant portions of the application files are shown in the following code segments. Line
numbers in the code segments are included for reference only and include a two-character prefix
that denotes the specific file to which they belong.

70-532 dumps

QUESTION 1
The website does not receive alerts quickly enough.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Enable automatic scaling for the website.
B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role.
C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance.
D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role.
E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role.
70-532 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You create a VM named cVM_005 for a newly hired contractor.
The contractor reports that the VM runs out of memory when the contractor attempts to test the mobile applications.
You need to double the memory that is available for the VM.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you use?

70-532 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C

D. Option D
70-532 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts.
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive.
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400″ />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You need to implement tracing for the website after the website is deployed.
Which code segment should you insert at line CF13?

70-532 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-532 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You need to configure a VM for a new contractor.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

70-532 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 7
You run the following Windows PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.
70-532 dumps

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

70-532 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the worker role to support the real-time continuous data-collection
service.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options
in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-532 dumps

70-532 vce Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 9
You configure alerts in Azure. The metrics shown in the following exhibit represent the average
values for each five-minute period.

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Aug 09, 2017
Q&As: 49

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Latest Pass4itsure 70-742 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#1-21

1.Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
70-742 exam Answer: C
2.Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as “projects” and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000.The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status.
How would you define this situation?
A. Because each individual order is a “temporary endeavor,” each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C
3.A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
70-742 dumps Answer: C
4.All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A
5.A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.

70-742 pdf Answer: C
6.While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track.
What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A
7.You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country.
Which of the following should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
70-742 vce Answer: A
8.An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do.
What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C
9.What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller’s estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
70-742 exam Answer: A
10.You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project.

It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C
11.If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
70-742 dumps Answer: C
12.The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip.
What is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A
13.A project manager has made a change to the project.
What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
70-742 pdf Answer: B
14.A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B
15.A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change.
What is the MOST appropriate advice for the situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project

planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
70-742 vce Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-734
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 46

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Latest Pass4itsure 70-734 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#1-21

QUESTION NO: 1
Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest
impact on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. Theusers status in the organisation
70-734 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring
aprofessional approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your
team has confided in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would
youexplain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure
usersatisfaction with services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the
support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to
meetdelivery of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards ofbehaviour
70-734 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First
Contact Resolution performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels

70-734 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managingusers expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of
yourprincipal responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers tousers questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
70-734 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the ITorganisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for
assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to theorganisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
70-734 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What
is the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistentbehaviour
B. Company policiesemphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet theirmanagers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
70-734 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are
procedures and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for
consistent procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not becriticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
70-734 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently

B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
70-734 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will notcriticise my behaviour
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
70-734 pdf Answer: C

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